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Clearification needed

I am currently on Spanish Obj. Pron. (object pronouns). I tried the first part of the lesson multiple times and I still do not get it? Could somebody help?

4 years ago

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aabanicoss
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I don't know the problem is, so I'm going to do an overview on object pronouns.

There are two sets of object pronouns in Spanish: direct object pronouns (D.O.) and indirect object pronouns (I.O.).

D.O. pronouns: Yo - me (English equivalent: me) Tú - te (English equivalent: you) Él - lo (English equivalent: him) Ella - la (English equivalent: her) Nosotros - nos (English equivalent: us) Ellos - los (English equivalent: them) Ellas - las (English equivalent: them)

Just as in English, the direct object pronouns are used when they are receiving action.

For examples, in English, we say, "She knows me." We don't say, "She knows I." Likewise in Spanish, we say, "Ella me conoce." It is wrong to say, "Ella conoce yo." That makes no sense. Also, you cannot say, "Ella conoce me." That is wrong as well. Object pronouns are placed in front of the conjugated verb or are attached to infinitives when possible.

The next set of pronouns are the I.O. pronouns, which are pretty similar to the D.O. pronouns:

I.O. pronouns: Yo - me (English equivalent: (to) me) Tú - te (English equivalent: (to) your) Él/ella - le (English equivalent: (to) him/her) Nosotros - nos (English equivalent: (to) us) Ellos/ella - les (English equivalent: (to) them)

The IO pronouns are usually translated as to + object pronoun, but they don't necessarily have to be translated that way. For example, "Ella me dio el perro." ---> "She gave me the dog." OR "She gave the dog to me." As you can see, we can translate it two different ways in English, but it means the same thing. IO pronouns usually answer the questions "To whom/what?" and, less commonly, "For whom.what?"

Furthermore, with IO, they're used with a whole list of verbs in Spanish, one of the most notable being gustar.

Me gusta Te gusta Le gusta Nos gusta Les gusta

The way gustar is translated and why it uses the IO pronouns is because what it really means is "(Blank) is pleasing to me/you/him/her/us/them." Many other verbs function this way and are crucial to the Spanish language.

Sometimes when to use the DO or IO pronoun is a little blurry. Spanish has this kind of cool thing where certain dialects use some pronouns more than others. The preference to use lo is called loísmo; the preference to use la is called laísmo; and the preference to use le is called leísmo. There are general rules and guidelines that should be followed, but sometimes it's just a matter of where you're at.

One final note: in the case that you use both a IO and DO pronoun in one sentence, the IO pronoun comes first.

"He wants to give it to me." ----> "Èl me lo quiere dar." OR "Él quiere dármelo."

If "le" or "les" comes before "lo/la/los/las," "le" and "les" change to "se."

"He wants to give it to him." ----> "Él se lo quiere dar." OR "Él quiere dárselo." (NOT "le lo quiere dar" or "quiere dárlelo." It is WRONG.)

Hope I've helped!

4 years ago

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Thank you so much!

4 years ago