"I will travel alone in order to be calm."
Translation:Je voyagerai seule pour être tranquille.
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Yes, I agree that it does imply that the speaker is normally fidgety, but then again who is to say they aren't? It shouldn't be marked wrong simply because it doesn't fit a specific undisclosed and arbitrary narrative. The sentence with "calme" still makes sense in some circumstances and thus should be accepted.
They have not put "calme" in the translation! They refuse to do so even though it's correct and "tranquille" is not.
"pour être tranquille" means "in order not to be disturbed".
The problem seems to be that they are not willing to admit that they got the FR→EN translation wrong, and they are trying to get back to a French sentence with a different meaning to the English one.
since the french with 'tranquille' is the original sentence it is de facto correct. the english could be incorrect but not the french.
sitesurfs post above also says that this sentence is about being undisturbed--tranquille.
TLFI has 'calme' "Qui est tranquille' 1. Le temps était magnifique, la mer calme comme si ses eaux eussent été contenues dans les rives étroites d'un lac, ... VERNE, L'Île mystérieuse, 1874, p. 220." la mer is not fidgety but disturbed at times by storm, but verne says it was calm as if sheltered by the lake's shores.
hachette cites examples showing them to be synonyms.
word reference. être au calme have some peace and quiet. "Elle va à la bibliothèque pour être au calme."
calm in and of itself can't exist without being the opposite of disturbed, troubled.
whether you are right or wrong, you know these discussions aren't monitored.
It is only "de facto" correct if they provide an accurate English translation.
When they provide an incorrect English translation, as they have here, then it only translates back to the original French if you translate it incorrectly.
The French sentence is about not being disturbed. The English sentence is not, nor is it an accurate translation of the French sentence.
"... pour etre calme." Should be accepted. I actually understood the sentence to imply that I, as the speaker, was inclined to be nervous when having to deal with other people, (as in traveling with them.) The LaRousse translates the English, 'calm' to the French, 'calme' and vice versa. The LaRousse also gives the definition of 'tranquille' as quiet rather than 'calm'. Both should be accepted? Reported: 6.11.20
But not as wrong as this exercise is.
You yourself said (above) that "Je voyagerai seule pour être tranquille." means "so as not to be disturbed." which has got nothing to do with being calm.
Google and Larousse are both right, "calm" => "calme".
"Tranquille", in this context, => "quiet" or "peaceful" and NOT "calm".
The problem is that this sentence doesn't make sense and is effectively meaningless, because the FR→EN translation was incorrect.
"Being calm" is not a result of travelling alone, it is a result of the plane or vehicle not crashing.
The reason that translating this using "calme" produces nonsense is because the English sentence is already nonsense!
Sorry but I can tell you that I took it to be because I wanted peace and calm. They used calm and so we used it . I can tell you once I finish this year of Plus I am done. I am tired of choices for them and expecting us to guess how a person "might" feel. I don't use tranquil for anything.