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  5. "Es gehört mir."

"Es gehört mir."

Translation:It belongs to me.

May 10, 2013



Isn't "gehört" also the past tense of "to hear"? Does it only mean "to belong" when used with the Dative? Would that mean the english sentence "I've heard it belongs to him" would translate to: "Ich habe gehört, es gehört ihm"? I'm a little confused here…


Understandable confusion. 1: hören = to hear. 2: gehören + Dativ = to belong to. 3: You are right in everything. Ich habe gehört, dass es Ihm gehört. (In the subordinate clause the verb finishes last.) And get your head around: Ich habe gehört, dass es ihm gehört hat. I assure you: perfectly grammatical.


Does "Ich habe gehoert, dass es ihm gehoert hat." have a different (past? because "hat"?) tense in the subordinate clause? Is that the difference? (I'm guessing it might, I really don't know. I suppose that might be something like "I've heard [that] it has belonged to him"?)


Isn't "gehört" also the past tense of "to hear"?

The past participle, but yes.

The past participles of hören (hear) and gehören (belong) are both gehört.

But you can still tell them apart because hören takes a direct object in the accusative case, while gehören has the owner in the dative case:

  • Er hat mich gehört. "He heard me."
  • Er hat mir gehört. "He belonged to me."


Its mine... my own... my precious.


Would it be incorrect to say, "It's mine"?


Theoretically, no. It means the same thing.


I answered and am answering kinda like that. It's mine just now used. He is drinking water(are you kidding me) if they can short ''isst Mittagessen'' so will I. Haven't failed me.(yet)


I answered: 'That belongs to me', which was apparently wrong. I'd say it can be right too. E.g. someone is pointing a book on a table and asking who is the owner. Since 'Buch' is neutral, you could answer: Das gehört mir. Am I wrong?


es = it das = the/that

So your example sentence would mean "That belongs to me" but the one they gave technically means "It belongs to me." Slight difference, especially depending on the context the sentences come up in.


why not "Es gehort zu mir"? 'cause previously I saw "Er gehort nicht zu uns".


Same question. I've heard gehört zu mir. Can you say both?


mir, and other dativ pronouns already imply 'to me'


Since found out you can say both. There's a disco song from the 70s called 'Er gehört zu mir'.

I think the difference is:

Gehört zu mir = belongs to me

Gehört mir = is mine

Please tell me if I'm wrong.


not sure, my flimsy understanding is starting to unravel...


when to use' belong' and 'belongs'


In Questions and Negatives sentences you use belong Do you belong to him?

He doesn't belong to him

In Assesments or declaratives sentences for the 3th person you use belongs

She belongs to himm


Why is me in the dative here? Can someone please explain?


It encapsulates the idea of the thing belonging TO me


the dative serves the purpose of the word "to". "To me" is essentially Dative in English.

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