"Elle est restée au lit parce qu'elle a la grippe."

Translation:She stayed in bed because she has the flu.

June 7, 2020

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she stayed in bed because she has flu should be accepted. In the UK nobody has the flu, they just have flu. I've been reporting this on every phrase that comes up with flu in it for months and nothing has been done. Please can you amend this.


This doesn't seem correct: she stayed - past tense, has the flu - present tense. Can anyone explain?


She stayed in bed (today); she has flu.


No -it is "she is staying in bed today; she has the flu", there's an implied "because". This French could mean: She stayed in bed (last week); she (now) has the flu.


I'm not sure I understand the objection. Could you elaborate?


I'm still trying to understand why there is past tense for staying in bed and present tense for the flu. Surely she "stayed in bed because she had the flu" or she "is staying in bed because she has the flu"?
I suppose it makes some sense if "stayed in bed" means "didn't get up"?


I don't see why it's an issue to describe a past event (she stayed in bed) and then use a current event (she's currently sick) as an explanation, it seems that this kind of structure exists both in French and English.

If the objection is that she's currently still in bed, I don't see how that's entailed (for example she could have stayed in bed this morning because of the flu, but this afternoon she's up).

If the objection is that she's not sick anymore, I don't see how that's entailed either (for example, even though she got up eventually, she could still have the flu at the moment).

Maybe I'm just misunderstanding the issue you're trying to raise, but I don't really see why it would be necessary to use the same tense for both descriptions.

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