"My parents like the beer."
Translation:A mis padres les gusta la cerveza.
My parents like the beer.
The beer is pleasing to my parents.
La cerveza les gusta a mis padres.
A mis padres les gusta la cerveza.
Bravo, maestro, y gracias! Es muy útil, una explicación simple y claro.
Why is "La cerveza les gusta a mis padres." not correct? I switched the places of 'a mis padres' and 'la cerveza'
"Beer" in English can refer to the singular or the plural - "I am drinking the beer" does not specify whether it is a single unit of beer ("the beer [can] over there") or multiple units of beer ("the beer [cans] over there").
The answer could be "gusta" or "gustan" depending on which meaning is given to "the beer".
I put: "la cervesa les gusta a mis padres" and was told the correct answer is: "A mis padres les gusta la cerveza"
The last sentence was: "la cuna le gusta a mi hijo" (My son likes the crib)
They seem like the same sentence constructions. Should the order matter?
uhm why is "mis padres" an indirect object here? and what is the direct object then?
I don't quite understand whyt this is "A mis padres les gusta" rather than "Mis padres gusta"
In Spanish, this DOES NOT mean "my parents like the beer." It means "the beer pleases my parents." A good translation takes into account the expectations of the target audience. So we twist the Spanish construction around for the convenience of the English speakers we are translating for. So the Spanish thought pattern requires "A mis padres les gusta."
Thanks Roger. Can you expand on it a little?
I understand that "gustar" refers to"the thing that pleases", but I'm not quite sure why it takes an "a" and a "les" here. I understand that something like "a ella" can be used on the end of a sentence to clarify the person to whom an action is carried out. What would "mis padres gusta cerveza" not do for a Spanish speaker? Why wouldn't it work?
Hey, I am only a level 9 and that answer is above my pay grade. But seriously, I think it lies between clarifying to who the pleasure is directed and that is just how the Spanish would say it.
I think it's because it's more like "the beer is pleasing to my parents," and since "a" technically means "to" that's where it comes in.
This is the spanish "personal a" . Google around for that. There are a couple simple grammar rules to follow.
Is "a mis padres gusta la cerveza" not correct? It seems like "a mis padres" and "les" are redundant...
"The beer pleases "to" my parents" is what is being said, "A" means "to". This will hurt your ear and your brain until you brain begins to switch into Spanish mode and then it will sound normal.
I put, 'le gustan'...can someone please explain why it is 'les gusta' por favooorr! :))
Let me reiterate. The Spanish does not actually say "My parents like the beer", it says "The beer pleases my parents." I believe you are trying to get gustan to agree with padres when it should agree with the singular cerveza (a singular category of drink).
cerveza is singular therefore it is gusta. if cerveza was plural then it would be gustan
yes, but beer is a noncount noun, and so is always plural right?
"My parents like beer." In general. Unless we are at a beer fest, and my parents are sharing a sample of one particular beer and find that they both like "the beer" (the one with the black label from Aleworks) in which case, I could see it being singular....
I'm not exactly sure what you are saying. Non-count nouns generally take the singular form of the verb. (Collective nouns are a different category and which verb form one uses with those depends on dialect.)
Also, although it's not an issue for this example, remember that English and Spanish do not always "agree" on what is a count noun and what is a non-count noun. (Mostly, I think, it's the Spanish that has some count nouns that in English would be non-count. Examples that I can think of: advice, information, knowledge, protein.)
and it's les and not le because it's "parents" (plural). (but, as written in other comments, the gusta has to agree with the beer.)
Mis padres le(just beer, not beers right) gustan(padres=3rd person plural) la cerveza. Why is this wrong?
I can remember similar sentences being correct Yo le(her, singular) escribo(yo=1st person singular) un libro a ella Nosotros le(her, singular) leemos(nosotros=1st person plural) un libro a ella
Padres is plural (mother and father) and requires "les" and not "le". You also left out the "A" in "A mis padres."
I understand what the "a" means and why it is used, but I don't understand why "mis padres les gusta la cerveza" is incorrect Is the "a" always necessary?
Think of it as "The beer is pleasing to my parents." (This is how "like" is expressed in Spanish.)
(I actually think that it's "pleases" and an example of the "personal a", but I'm not sure and that's a whole other topic that is confusing.)
Then there's the issue that indirect object pronouns (les in this case) are NOT optional, no matter how redundant they seem to us.
(In some English sentences, Spanish speakers think of our subject pronouns as redundant or unnecessary. Over in the English learning section, many are having conniptions over "It".)
The one thing we can say about gustar is that it's consistent. So it's just a matter of getting used to the way it works. (I'm not saying it's easy.)
You can think of it as "The beer is pleasing to my parents." (Which is how "like" is expressed in Spanish.)
One of the two options for this sentence says "Mis padres gustan DE la cerveza."
oh, hmmm ... I've never seen it expressed that way ...
I truly don't mean this snarkily, but are you sure this was one of the correct answers? Mis pardres gustan de la cerveza goes against everything I have learned about the verb gustar.
However, I am not a native speaker and make no claim to being infallible. If anyone else can shed some light on the topic, it would be appreciated.
I've taken Spanish for years, and have never used "a" before a sentence like that. Can someone explain why "mis padres les gusta la cerveza" is incorrect?
"[Gustar and verbs like it] all have indirect objects which require an indirect object pronoun (in most cases). Sentences may begin or end with the indirect object and may or may not include the preposition “a” plus a pronoun or noun."
Exactly- "may or may not include the preposition 'a'..." I think that without should be a correct response
I think you misunderstand. If you use mis padres you must have the a at the beginning of the phrase OR you can skip the a mis padres altogether.
The "may or may not" above refers to the whole phrase, not just the a.
Remember, mis padres is not the subject of the sentence, cerveza is.
Why is mis padres gusta la cerveza wrong? I thought the conjugation of gustar was based on la cervesa, not mis padres
Jcmurphy77, you're right that gustar conjugates based on the subject, la cerveza. I believe you were counted wrong because your sentence left out the preposition "a" before "mis padres" and the pronoun "les." (This makes it roughly translate into English as "To my parents, the beer pleases them.")
http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/gustar.htm demonstrates how this works, but it doesn't clarify why a speaker can't simply use "mis padres" as the object without needing to change it into the object of a prepositional phrase and use a pronoun as the main object. Can anyone here explain that?