Is it like in Spanish? : the past of SER and the past of IR are the same in Spanish. The conjugation button showed me the verb to go (IR) when I clicked to see the conjugation of FORAM. Thank you for helping me.
Yes, it is exactly the same, the past tenses for «ir» and «ser». XD
Yeah, the verbs "ser" and "ir" have the same conjugations either in Spanish and Portuguese :)
Ola! Where does one find "the conjugation button"? If "foram" is the past tense of "ser" = "to be" then I understand how "foram can translate to "were". But if it is the past tense of "ir" = "to go", translating it as 'were" makes no sense to me at all. Am I understanding this correctly?
Hi DL.....should this sentence not be "Eles erem meninos" using the imperfect indictive? I thought and taught the perfect indictive was for short peroids of time or recent happenings? Do you have anything to clarify the difference? Thanks :)
«Eles eram meninos.» is the imperfect tense, which emphasizes the action that they were for a long time and might still be boys. The above sentence «Eles foram meninos.», though, emphasizes the finality of it. They once were boys. Now, they are not. It is hard to explain. I hope this helped.
But "meninos" can include girls, as well. It tells us only that there was at least one boy.