"Personne ne nous a servi depuis une heure."

Translation:No one has served us for an hour.

June 19, 2020

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I omitted the "has" and it ("No one served us for an hour") was rejected. Don't you usually use "depuis" with the present tense (in French) if you're talking about something still happening?

I.E. my thought process is: "Personne ne nous sert depuis une heure" = "No one has served us for an hour" While, "Personne ne nous a servi depui une heure" = "No one served us for an hour" — it's past tense in French because the action is actually over in a way that it isn't when you include "has."


Your reasoning about "depuis" is correct but I think you're getting confused by the negative. In the positive the passé composé means an action that's over and done with, but in the negative you're saying something hasn't happened, so at least at that point in time, it continues to NOT happen if that makes sense.


Ah wow that's very interesting actually, je vous remercie!


"nobody has served us in an hour" ?? Both "for an hour" and "in an hour" express the same thing.


"In an hour" is usually used to express the time until a future event happens i.e. "I'm leaving in an hour".


Why is it "servi" rather "servis," given the placement of "nous" before it? Is it because of "personne ne?" I would have expected agreement with the direct object.


I'm not sure, but maybe nous is an indirect object in this sentence.


I think you are right. The direct object isn't specified, but it could be, for example, food (de la nourriture).


" Personne" it's 3rd person, so "servi" is correct.


The issue is not whether "servi" agrees with the Subject (it does not, except by coincidence, since it conjugates with "avoir"), but whether it should agree with the preceding Object ("nous").

It does not agree, because "nous" is a Preceding Indirect Object, not a Preceding Direct Object.


I am also confused why "No one served us for an hour" is incorrect. How would you say that in French? Google Translate does not include the "has" from E->F or F->E


I think "No one served us for an hour" would be "Personne ne nous a servi pendant une heure."


No one served us in an hour, what is wrong with that?


nobody has (or then, nobody's) versus no one has? any thoughts?


Duo's algorithms are not sufficiently advanced to correctly handle contractions that can be confused with a possessive — such as "nobody's". Avoid them.


Why isn't it "Personne ne nous a servi pas..."? Why is the pas dropped?


Ne goes with personne, just as it does with pas.


When the latter half of a negative pairing like "ne … personne" is the Subject of the sentence it needs to move to the front of the sentence.


You'll need to copy and paste your answer here if you want help with it. The people on these forums aren't staff, so we can't see what you wrote.


"nobody's served us for an hour" may be a bit casual, but it's the sort of thing someone might say.


I think Duo's contraction algorithm has an issue with whether that is a contraction of "nobody is" or "nobody has".

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