"Personne ne nous a servi depuis une heure."
Translation:No one has served us for an hour.
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I omitted the "has" and it ("No one served us for an hour") was rejected. Don't you usually use "depuis" with the present tense (in French) if you're talking about something still happening?
I.E. my thought process is: "Personne ne nous sert depuis une heure" = "No one has served us for an hour" While, "Personne ne nous a servi depui une heure" = "No one served us for an hour" — it's past tense in French because the action is actually over in a way that it isn't when you include "has."
Your reasoning about "depuis" is correct but I think you're getting confused by the negative. In the positive the passé composé means an action that's over and done with, but in the negative you're saying something hasn't happened, so at least at that point in time, it continues to NOT happen if that makes sense.
The issue is not whether "servi" agrees with the Subject (it does not, except by coincidence, since it conjugates with "avoir"), but whether it should agree with the preceding Object ("nous").
It does not agree, because "nous" is a Preceding Indirect Object, not a Preceding Direct Object.