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  5. "Elle n'a jamais payé une seu…

"Elle n'a jamais payé une seule boisson dans ce bar."

Translation:She never paid for a single drink at this bar.

June 23, 2020



She must've made the rounds with some of the suave and debonair dudes who completed Duo's "Flirting" lesson


Would she has never... be accepted?


It should be! I didn't try it but will do so if I see this sentence again.


I just tried it and it wasn't accepted


------- in this bar ? at this bar ? . . .

Big 7 jul 20


I think both should be accepted.


MOD: Why is "She never paid for ONE single drink in this bar." marked INCORRECT_To express emphatically, one could say ". . . .ONE single drink. . ." rather than "A single drink. . ." How then might one say in French "ONE single drink"?


you are right, you'd say 'une seule boisson' as it is in the example. this module is terrible


Une also means a/an. Both are accepted if the rest of the sentence was good.


this is the most awful module so far... she has never paid for one single drink in this bar should be accepted. there is emphasis on 'une seule' which the english equivalent would be 'one single'


You can't use present perfect tense to translate the imparfait tense.

  • as payé = paid, did pay, have paid

  • payais = paid, used to pay, was paying

The reason is that with imparfait tense, the action started and stopped in a past time.


Um ... I don't think (n')a (jamais) payé is in the imperfect tense. Maybe they've changed the audio since?


I'm confused. Is the word 'seule' here used as a 'noun' or an 'adjective' ?

  • 1471

Is "paye" one of those words that is the same for male and female or is "payee" used?


It takes avoir, therefore the ending does not alter with gender or number.


Is it wrong to say, 'she never paid for one single drink at this bar'?


Not wrong perhaps but tautology. How could a single drink be anything but one?


Why is it "Elle n'a jamais payé" in this excercise but it was "Jean-Paul, .. ne payait jamais" in the previous one? Is it "n'a payé" or "ne payait "? They are both supposed to be translations of "never paid for".


They are different tenses. Elle n'a jamais payé ... Is the passé composé (perfect) tense. Paul ... Ne payait jamais is the imperfect. Usually the imperfect is used for more continuous or repeated actions or states in the past whereas the perfect is for actions of more limited duration. Here's a useful article on the differences https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/passe-compose-vs-imparfait/


Thanks CarlGraing1. However, I wasn't really asking for an explanation about the tenses. I just wanted to know why Duo chose to use one tense in one sentence and the other tense in the other sentence, when there was no indication whether the actions were limited or repeated in either case. In both cases, the person had never paid for something.


Without knowing the whole of the other sentence it's difficult to comment specifically, but the article I posted the link to might give some clues.


She owes the bar over £1000


I'm sure that someone else paid.

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