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  5. "I don't like either cherry j…

"I don't like either cherry juice or soda."

Translation:Je n'aime ni le jus de cerises ni le soda.

June 30, 2020



Please explain when one uses just ni without the article!


Do not know re the other answers so not disputing them. The definite articles are used here because of the verb 'aimer' ...remember the rule when using verbs of emotion etc use the definite article not the 'partitive article'. With the construct "ne... ni.. ni " when the definite article is called for (as here) it cannot be omitted. However the construct 'ne ni ni' can be used without the 'partitive article' if the noun is collectable/bulk /uncountable ...but requires it otherwise. Here is a link detailing use of ne... ni ni https://www.lawlessfrench.com/grammar/negative-conjunctions/. Note especially the question with wine and beer in the quiz which follows. Also DUO has instances in this module which show ne ni ni with and without the partitive articles and they fall within the explanations I offered../. i think(?).

EDIT!! .. Here is further proof from DUO exercise at https://www.duolingo.com/skill/fr/Let's-Eat/5: I don't want either lemon juice or vinegar, thank you. == je ne veux ni jus de citron ni vinaigre merci!!! Notice NO ARTICLES!! Does not calL for the DEFINITE article (not a verb like aimer but vouloir) and calls for the partitive article which can be omitted becausE the nouns are collective(uncountable) juice and vinegar.


Why do you have to include "le" here


Verbs like aimer, adorer, préférer, détester, etc. take the definite article before nouns.


Here the "le" means any kind of. So, when you dont like any kind of soda, you use "le soda".


Why plural cerises? In other examples the fruit has been singular, for example, jus de l'orange


I think you could write it both ways. But it's "jus d'orange(s)".


I like neither cherry juice nor soda


Can someone please explain why this example adds "le" while some others don't?


Here the "le" means any kind of. So, when you dont like any kind of soda, you use "le soda".

  • 1476

Isn't there some rule about "le" becoming "de" after a negative verb?


Only when 'le' is part of the partitive article.(de +le=du) de+la/de+l/de+les=des) all become de. So do indefinite articles. But the DEFINITE ARTICLE...AND only the context determines that (le/la/les) do not become de. There are two criteria in the sentence that confirm that it is 'le/les) the DEFINITE ARTICLE. Rule :1...verb is aimer(verb of emotion like aimer/preferer/detester etc.. is followed by DEFINITE article. Rule :2 ...as Antti546484 points out it is also a generalization where the definite article means he does not all soda... Also ne...ni..ni has certain specific rules for articles.


What I still don't understand is that the translation of the American word 'soda' is supposed to be 'soda'. This word is used in French alright, but isn't the American 'soda' what in Britain would be called a 'fizzy drink' and isn't that in French a 'boisson rafraîchissante', or a 'rafraîchissement'?

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