You're right: "sie hat" would mean "she has". However, "Sie haben" (note the capital letter) means "they have". It is a bit trickier when "sie" is at the start of the sentence, but you must look at the verb ending to determine whether it is "she" or "they". Hope that helps.
sie hat = she has; sie haben = they have; Sie haben = you have (formal)
Notice that the verb conjugate changes according to the subject. 'Sie' also changes to capital when used formally as 'you' (not 'they' as you have said fordhogan). All verbs in German conjugate differently according to the subject, if you are confused during a lesson hover over the verb and select 'conjugate'. Duo will then show you the different ways that verb conjugates.
When you are speaking, how would someone know it is capital? Just because you are starting with Sie in your sentence?
"Sie" means she, they, and you (formal), but the verbs are different. Sie hat = she has ... Sie haben = they have ... Sie haben = you have (formal- singular and plural)
So, this sentence can also be translated: "You have milk" formal. As "Sie is at the beginning of the sentence, it can be you too.
It depends upon how the verb is used for eg if it is like sie liest then it is she reads but if it is sie lesen it means they are reading
this is one of those sentences where you just have to judge by the situation to understand.
It's sie for "she" and "Sie" for they. However, if it's at the beginning of the sentence, you can understand it from from the verb.
Why does "they are having milk" not work here? how can you tell if plural persons have or are having something?
Because "They are having milk" means that they are drinking milk.. "Sie haben Milch" means "They have milk" meaning they possess/ they own milk
"they are having milk" would fall under "Sie trinken Milch." "Haben" means "to have" so the literal translation here is "They to have milk." Just take out the "To" so that it makes sense. "They have milk"
The literal translation wouldn't be "They to have milk" because the infinitive is not used here. We can know this because the verb is specially conjugated for the subject, wherewith it becomes a finite verb ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_verb ), but it's understandable to confuse it here, because the verb itself hasn't changed per se, although that doesn't mean that it's still the infinitive. The infinitive is when there is no subject implied by the verb. For example, "to have milk" is an infinitive in English, and "Milch haben" is the German equivalent.
Simple, what the hell do you mean with "they'are having milk"? it doesn't even make sense.
In English, you can use the verb "to have" in funky ways like that to mean "to drink", but in German, you generally can't do literal translations for such funky usages. So "Sie haben Milch" means "They have milk" as in the milk is in their possession, not that they are drinking it.
That's true, and you have to pronounce the "h" together with the "c", so it sounds like the Scottish "loch" (the "ch").
That's not correct. Give this a thorough read:
Actually the "ch" is pronounced as "h" only, although I've heard there are some regions where they pronounce it as "sh", but as "h" is the most common.
"Ch' has a different sound than just 'h.' Listen to the audio. I'm not even sure how to pronounce it the way you described. Putting a 'h' on the end is very hard and odd sounding.
Although I have also heard that some dialects pronounce it more like 'sh.'
Just gotta say the microphone dosent work that well in the beginning it works well the other day, please somebody fix it
No. If it was sie(female) it would have Hat but because it is "Haben" that means it is plural. not singular.
What about the difference between sie ( they) and Sie ( formal you)? If they are both have the same ending, how do you tell the difference?
Whats the difference between habe and haben they mean the same thing right?
I'm gonna have to look this up. I'm not seeing the difference between have, hast and haben
What is the difference between'Sie' for translated word"she" and 'Sie' for translated word"they" ?
Yes.... Sie is a bit trickier when it comes with sie (haben) .. It means (they have) and when it comes with sie (hat) it would means (she have).
Er/sie/es - hat Ich - habe Sie - haben Wir-haben Ihr- habe ??? Is that correct? A friend told me that but I'm a bit confused
I don't hear the whole sentence in this task when I'm using Duo for mobile phones. Hope others don't have the same problem. :)
Nope. They are pronounced exactly the same. One nice thing about German is that pronunciation follows strict rules. I can't think of any heteronyms (http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/198897/what-are-words-that-are-spelt-the-same-but-pronounced-differently) in the German language.
No, look at the verb.
She has milk. = Sie hat Milch.
They have milk. = Sie haben Milch. .
Why does sie mean she and they, i know it must be capital to be they but what if its at the beginning of a sentence???
I'm finding it impossible to pronounce anything when it says to pronounce it, and I wish Duolingo would give you more than just 3 chances. It always I'm wrong. Lol
Lol are you tryna learn German as well? I can't stand the part where you have to pronounce it lol.
To determine whether "Sie" is "She" or "They" look at the verb following the pronoun. Sie trinken Milch. Sie trinkt Milch. I know it sucks:)
both are correct: "You have milk" (You in the formal sense) and "they have milk".
You answered yourself in a way, as the verb is conjugated (haben) in the third person plural (they/sie). It would be "she" if the verb was conjugated in the third person singular (hat). If you excuse the other conjugations that German has for a moment, then it can be simplified to the difference between "They HAVE milk" and "She HAS milk" in English, except in German, "sie" can mean both "she" and "they". So "Sie HAT Milch" is "She HAS milk", and "Sie HABEN Milch" is "They HAVE milk". "Sie" can also mean the formal second person pronoun (a formal "you"), if it has a capital letter (if it's at the start of a sentence, then you have to tell from context).
Since all plurals in German have a "die" article, which is the feminine article, that might help to explain why "sie" can be used for both "they" (plural third person) and "she" (feminine singular third person). This is just a thought that popped into my mind, and I figured that it helps to understand the logic behind this.
Ah right, I see, thank you for the correction of my mistaken assumption. On another note, I didn't know that they even had different third person plural pronouns for each gender in Old High German, but I suppose that it's normal for languages to be complexer the further back in history they are.
Sie =She and Sie+they How can we know the difference if it is plural or singular?
Typically the verb's conjugation will tell you this. For example, in "Sie HABEN Milch", the verb "have" is "haben", and that form of the verb goes with "they". If it were to be "she" however, it would rather be "Sie HAT Milch", and the verb form here is "hat". It's like the difference between "have" and "has" in English, except German has a lot more forms.
"du" would be "Du hast Milch" (You [one person] have milk), and "ihr" would be "Ihr habt Milch" (You [multiple persons] have milk).
Here it is "Sie haben Milch", which can be either "They have milk" or "You [formal] have milk".
According to the definition shown, haben is have (We/They) but the correct "answer" is YOU have milk. WHAT?
"Sie" is also the formal counterpart of the informal "du" (you, singular) and "ihr" (you, plural), and in this specific usage it'd always have a capital "S" but it's at the start of the sentence so it's capital either way here. Both "You have milk" and "They have milk" are correct for "Sie haben Milch", but "We have milk" is not correct because that'd be "Wir haben Milch".
I get so confused with all the habe, haben, hat could someone help me tell them apart?
I have = "Ich habe" (first person) They/You (formal)/We have = "Sie/Sie/wir haben" (third person plural, second person formal, first person plural) He/she/it has = "Er/sie/es hat" (third person singular)
It's like in English you use "has" for third person singular and "have" for everything else... except in German there are more distinctions.
Why is you all have milk not correct here? I thought since we are using "haben" the literal translation of Sie would be "you all".
Whats the difference between habe and habben? I am new to German and I am very confused.
so this could be either "You have milk" or "They have milk" - ? How would you differentiate between the two?
why is it not equaly correct to say "she has milk"? I keep falling on this one!
You can tell it's not she because of the verb conjugation. Haben = they/you formal plural. Hat = He/she/it/you singular formal
Could "they have some milk" also be correct? It sounds more natural in English than "they have milk"
That would be "Sie haben etwas Milch." Since "some" refers to an amount, that's more information than the original sentence contains. We try to stick to the most straight forward translation.
"sie HAT" = "she has" whereas "sie HABEN" = "they have"
It's like the difference between "she HAS" and "they HAVE" in English. Another thing is, that you can see that not all their pronouns are the same ( https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_pronouns#Personal_pronouns ). In some cases, you won't be able to tell just by looking at the grammar itself, so you might have to resort to context then.
The verb conjugations will be different (like, "Sie haben Milch" = "They have milk", whereas "Sie hat Milch" = "She has milk"). Otherwise, context is a fallback.
It is a little queer that we have to hold our breaths and wait for what the mean of 'Sie' will be based on what comes next.
Well in English, when we say "You," we have to hold our breath and wait to see if it means one person or multiple people. And we don't even conjugate the verb differently, so it's even harder to determine.