"There aren't any leftovers from lunch; we ate everything."
Translation:Il n'y a pas de restes du déjeuner, on a tout mangé.
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The pronoun 'tout' (indefinite pronoun) is invariable. There is the adjective 'tout' which changes (like in tous les jours) and the adverb 'tout' etc etc. But 'tout' meaning 'everything' never changes! Here is a great long lesson on TOUT! https://french.kwiziq.com/my-languages/french/review/759/6844292
Only explanation I have is as follows: Aucun is normally followed by a SINGLE noun... so it would be RESTE. When you see aucun followed by a PLURAL NOUN... that noun is normally always used in a plural form like aucune vacanceS(there is no singular vacance).
Other than that I think it looks ok. Maybe better minds can chime in.
Don't know if this helps, from a website: Note that aucun must agree in gender with the thing it refers to
aucun/aucune never agree in number (singular/plural): as they describe an absence of things, they're always singular also when restes means "leftovers" it has to stay plural--not sure where to go with this
You are right! Restes has to stay plural if used to mean 'leftovers'.
Maybe since the noun is not grammatically like VACANCES where there is no singular,. Another consideration as we have seen in many other sentences and discussions, 'Aucun' is rejected if you cannot use the INDEFINITE article with the noun. Maybe that's the reason.
I am like you... don't know where to go from here.