"With this false mustache, will she recognize me?"
Translation:Avec cette fausse moustache, elle me reconnaîtra ?
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Faux pas is a set idiom (faire un faux pas literally means to trip). Faux frere can mean a traitor. Faux frais are incidental expenses.
"Avec cette fausse moustache me reconnaîtra t-elle ?" Solution not even proposed by Duolingo although it is the real correct answer which respects the rule of the interrogative mode in French. This contempt for the French language is purely and simply unacceptable. I am scandalized.
Never try tying the gender of the noun to the gender one would assume, it's going to drive you nuts!
More often than not in languages which have multiple endings/versions, the gender is more closely tied to the spelling. We don't really have gendered nouns in English - or rather, we don't have gendered articles. But we know that if something ends in ette/ess(e) it's likely to be a feminine version of the "normal" noun. E.g. you can use 'the actor" these days for either gender (or is that "all" now? I don't wish to cause offence, but I am limited by the nature of language), but you can also have "actress" which will always be feminine.
But if you look at German, for example, "the girl" is neuter! Das mädchen. IIRC, it's to do with the construction of mädchen (probably the "chen" bit) which always is neuter. So la moustache is not a surprise to me (◠‿◕)
Oh, the joys of linguistics!
I want to revisit the question of the structure of this sentence in French. The intro prepositional phrase ("with this false mustache") seems to modify the subject "she." In English, this error is syntactical and grammatical. Presumably, as other commentors have noted, "she" is not the person with the mustache. Is this word order actually correct in French?