"Après leur avoir dit la vérité, il a eu honte."
Translation:After telling them the truth, he was ashamed.
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But does it? Really? First, it is "them" not "him" in the French. But putting that to one side is there really a difference between "after telling them" or after having told them" and "after he had told them"? My question is not whether in this pretend DL land we have to suffer my translation is right or wrong but whether in the real world it is right or wrong. I.e., is my translation a fair one for the french, or have I got something grammatically incorrect. If the latter, I will be the first to hold up my hands, if the former, I will report with the concept of improving DL for those who come after me.
I wonder whether "having told them the truth" in which "after" is implied, is a reasonable English translation. I find myself having to translate from an English expression I would more likely use myself into a slightly less formal/more economical way of saying the same thing.
Not sure why this doesn't translate as "after having them the truth" - as for shame well it could relate to what he has actually done or the fact that he possibly lied about it in the first place. Shame is a perfectly normal reaction - and healthy - though rarely seen in public life, it seems, for which they should be truly ashamed - but I suspect Trump, Johnson et al will be blissfully unaware of their many misdeeds!