"If you set a date for a meeting, tell me."
Translation:Si tu fixes une date pour une réunion, dis-le-moi.
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The verb 'dire' can either mean 'tell' or 'say' and DUO uses it in both ways in this set of lessons. If you use it to mean 'say' it only needs a direct object... say WHAT? if you use it to mean TELL it needs both A DIRECT and AN InDIRECT object. You tell qqch(something) TO qqun(someone). So dis-what-to whom! dis-le-moi! In english you can leave out the 'IT' but not in french when you use dire to mean TELL...especially so in an imperative sentence.
"si vous avez fixé une date pour une réunion, dites-le-moi" - not accepted. The English is in the past tense, why is the French in the present tense? Seems to me "Si tu fixes une date pour une réunion, dis-le-moi" would back translate to "If you're setting a date for a meeting, tell me".
if you wanted to indicate the past(the person already set the date) wouldn't it be 'have or had'... Here it is (when /if you set). Neither of the sentences HERE is in the past... in my opinion Remember the subject is 2nd person.(set) not 3rd person(sets). I understand that set is also past but does it work here??
I think "....dis-la-moi" should be accepted. The speaker is being asked to be told of the date "la date" which is feminine.
Same question - why is dis-LA-moi wrong? How do we know that the person isn't asking to be told the specific date? There are many examples in this section where the le/la in French is implied in the English 'tell me'. 'Tell me a date has been fixed' in general (but not what it is) sounds very unlikely.