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"De meerderheid heeft niets meer."

Translation:The majority no longer has anything.

4 years ago

45 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/aashirwad
aashirwad
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Why does 'meer' become 'anymore' here?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/narion_k
narion_kPlus
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The word "meer" by itself doesn't mean "anymore"; rather, the phrase "niets meer" can be translated as "nothing anymore" in this sentence. In this case, "anymore" is a contraction of "any more" in the sense of "any longer" or "now". As far as I know, the word "anymore" is common in NA English but generally considered incorrect in British English.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CyrilofAlabama

Yes, confirming "anymore" is acceptable in American English, at least.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/randomwartflower

Why is "the majority has no more" wrong?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/twrist
twrist
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As in the majority have no more to give... Yes that's how I thought it should translate, too.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carambabueno

Agreed, perfectly fine English for the same meaning.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oisg
oisg
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Yeah thats what I thought too.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nomadali7

Yes, I think that "the majority has no more" is the same as "the majority has nothing more".... so it should be acceptable.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/El2theK
El2theK
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It is The majority has nothing anymore. If someone says to me The majority has no more my response would be what do they have no more?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nomadali7

Assume we are already talking, and we are saying that the people in China have run out of rice, and someone comments "The majority have no more" (suggesting perhaps that the wealthy still have rice). It makes sense, as do the other 2 options Duo gave: "nothing more" and "nothing anymore". I am a native English speaker (Australian). Due marked me wrong, but I'm fine with it as it all gives me the same meaning and it's the meaning that matters.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/as2907
as2907
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I may be wrong, but I think that sentence would be translated in a different way, maybe "de meerderheid heeft geen meer ervan". My impression is that "niets" can't be used as a pronoun.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ronalddotgl

anymore is not a word in British English - we wouldn't say it this way.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nomadali7

yes it is. I just looked it up in the Oxford English dictionary (online) to be sure. Anymore is definitely a word, even if some people don't use it anymore.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dutchbulb

https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/spelling/one-word-or-two this does too - seems to be a difference between American English and British English

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GabyClaire

Political Duo

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/cheungtszhim
cheungtszhim
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so deep

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MadalinaZa6

so depressing

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dunapartyboy
Dunapartyboy
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"...niets meer". Does not that mean "nothing more"?.... Or should this be considered in a different way in this case so it becomes "...nothing anymore"? Why is it "nothing anymore" and not "nothing more"? Thanks!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nullusaum
nullusaum
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I don't think I understand what "nothing more" would mean in English. As a native German, the construction "niets meer" is very natural to me, it is like "nichts mehr". The general idea here is that there is nothing (niets) remaining from something that was there once, it is "nicht mehr da". Maybe "nothing left" instead of "nothing anymore" is easier to grasp in that regard? The translation "the majority has nothing left" was accepted when I tried.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mangakoibito
mangakoibito
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In english nothing more is used the same as nothing remaining. Anymore has more of a sense of time, at least to me.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Domleschg
Domleschg
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In English, "nothing more" can mean "nothing beyond [something specified].

For example, "We have enough food for three days and an ostrich. The majority has nothing more" = "The majority does not have more than that." For example, the majority does not have food for four days, or two ostriches, or anything in addition to what we have.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Prudence966023

I don't know why, because originally I thought the same thing. But my guess is that "nothing more" is only used in certain circumstances, and so the most appropriate way of addressing this situation would be with "nothing anymore". Hope this helps you!

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jun-Dai
Jun-Dai
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But what does it mean?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/legalskier

I am not sure I understand what this sentence means. Does it mean that the Majority no longer has anything (with the translation using anymore), or that the majority has nothing left (with the translation using nothing more)?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/salems24

that's depressing xD

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/csi
csi
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How would you say, "The majority doesn't have anymore." Would it be, "De meerderheid heeft geen meer." ? Or I guess that would actually be, "The majority doesn't have more." ?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Simius
Simius
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The latter would be: "De meerderheid heeft niet meer", since "meer" is a not a noun in this case.

I'm not sure what you mean by "The majority doesn't have anymore.", that doesn't sound like a correct sentence to me.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/csi
csi
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Hmm, I'm not sure what I mean either. lol! I guess I meant, "The majority doesn't have any anymore." Google translates it as, "De meerderheid heeft geen meer hebben." Is that correct Dutch?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Simius
Simius
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No, Google is definitely wrong there. I think the closest Dutch translation would be: "De meerderheid heeft er geen meer (van)".

The "van" can be left out, but it is useful to better understand the construction with "er". Basically, "er van" = "thereof", so the sentence would literally translate to: "The majority has no more thereof".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/csi
csi
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Darn google translate! Ok, clearly that's a grammatical construction that is beyond me right now. Thank you!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Prudence966023

Also a nice tip, don't use google translate. That thing has failed me soooo many times. Only use it if you're in a REAL big pinch. Do want you want, but please learn from my experience.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HughB_au
HughB_au
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The majority does not have more isn't accepted, any particular reason?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/narion_k
narion_kPlus
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The reason is that "niets" means nothing, while "niet" means not.

De meerderheid heeft niet meer. | The majority does not have more.
De meerderheid heeft niets meer. | The majority has nothing any longer. / The majority no longer has anything.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HughB_au
HughB_au
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Thanks! Have a lingot :)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Eryashnik
Eryashnik
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"meerderheid" seems to be spoke in the fast version with a slight "el" sound after "meerde". Sounds more like meerdelheid than it should IMO. I think it may just be though the rapidity the machine switches between the symbols

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/thinkmac
thinkmac
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The language here sounds very weird. We normally say.. The majority does not have anything anymore...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Prudence966023

I agree, but either way it is still proper.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Nadanotacaba
Nadanotacaba
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Would "The majority has nothing left" be correct? I did not venture submit this alternative, since my gut feeling was telling me that it would not be deemed correct.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SosiiitMalfoy

Why is "the majority has no longer anything" wrong?

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/narion_k
narion_kPlus
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As a native speaker of American English, I don't necessarily know the rule for this, but it doesn't sound right to me. I think you always have to place "no longer" before the verb, in the same position where you would place "doesn't" or "don't".

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Prudence966023

Kind of agreeing with @narion_k here, and saying that this is not a proper sentence. This is wrong because the pieces of the sentence are all jumbled up and don't quite make sense. "The majority has no longer anything" Would be said as "The majority no longer has anything" Or "The majority doesn't have anything" and so on. It just sounds as though it is missing some important information or that there are too many things added on. Hope this helps!

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ashley.wilk

See, and this sentence doesn't make sense in English....

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/juliansaun
juliansaun
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Makes sense to me. It means that the majority has... Nothing. The sentence also implies that the majority once had something.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Nadanotacaba
Nadanotacaba
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juliansaun Agree, "anymore" ("meer") is the determining element. Leave it out, and you will have a sentence with a totally different meaning.

1 year ago