"Before, this pretty tablecloth was my grandmother's."

Translation:Avant, cette jolie nappe était à ma grand-mère.

July 14, 2020

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What is wrong with "Avant, cette jolie nappe était celle de ma grand-mère"?


Nothing, in my opinion. It might be uselessly complicated, and somehow implies that a person usually has one tablecloth, like if you said "the one of my grandmother", but it's still an acceptable translation to me.


Me too. I get that apparently "a" can be used to indicate possession (which was completely new to me), but is it actually wrong to use "de" in this example?

Can a native French speaker please weigh in? There is way too much speculation by other learners who are at my level. It wastes time to read through it. For the DL method to work, we need authoritative answers to simple grammatical questions.


I wrote the same and I was marked wrong.


Don't try to translate prepositions literally. It will only end up being confusing. There's no one-to-one correspondence between prepositions in different languages. Yes, "à" frequenty translates to "of", but this sentence is an example of where that translation breaks down.

"[nom] être à [quelqu'un]" is a fixed french construction that means "[noun] belongs to [someone]" or "[noun] is [person]'s"


"de ma grand-mere" SHOULD BE ACCEPTED


No it shouldn't. Possession uses à.

You could say "this is my grandma's tablecloth" --> "c'est la nappe de ma grand-mère"

or "this tablecloth is my grandmother's" --> "cette nappe est à ma grand-mère"

Congrats on the year streak btw!


Starting a sentence with "before" and not including what it relates to is very odd in English. It would be fine to omit "Before" and it would make better sense. We might also say: This pretty tablecloth used to be my grandmother's.



avant cette jolie nappe appartenait à ma grand-mère

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