"Before, this pretty tablecloth was my grandmother's."
Translation:Avant, cette jolie nappe était à ma grand-mère.
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Me too. I get that apparently "a" can be used to indicate possession (which was completely new to me), but is it actually wrong to use "de" in this example?
Can a native French speaker please weigh in? There is way too much speculation by other learners who are at my level. It wastes time to read through it. For the DL method to work, we need authoritative answers to simple grammatical questions.
Don't try to translate prepositions literally. It will only end up being confusing. There's no one-to-one correspondence between prepositions in different languages. Yes, "à" frequenty translates to "of", but this sentence is an example of where that translation breaks down.
"[nom] être à [quelqu'un]" is a fixed french construction that means "[noun] belongs to [someone]" or "[noun] is [person]'s"