"Son café était froid alors il s'est mis en colère."

Translation:His coffee was cold, so he got angry.

July 19, 2020

26 Comments
This discussion is locked.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/AndyKVA-USA

Why not "his coffee got cold, so he was angry."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

That would be: « Son café est devenu froid, alors il était en colère. »


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/aussie3931

Far better if he politely asked the person who made the coffee for a hot coffee.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/NickWoodal1

What is wrong with ""His coffee was cold so it made him angry" this was rejected.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

That's the same essential meaning, since it was the coffee being cold that made him angry, but you have changed the wording too much and switched around grammatical relations, and now you're no longer translating the sentence. "It made him angry" makes 'him' the object that the event of cold coffee is acting on; however, il s'est mis en colère has 'he' as the subject, il. The focus is on the man as the subject.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Seenoff

His coffee was cold so he put himself angry ? Is this the literal (word for word) translation?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

Colère is a noun, and en is a preposition, so the literal translation is "His coffee was cold so he put himself in anger."


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Seenoff

Thanks Sean


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Dmitri47485

To add literality, his coffee was cold for several minutes already, prolongated condition, and he has a short, momentary attack of anger, so in somewhat awkward English that would be "His coffee was being cold, so he got angry".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/es-irl
  • 1394

Why not 'il s'est mit en colère' rather than 'mis'? Thanks.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Frigooss

es-irl : Only because the past participle of 'mettre' is 'mis' and not 'mit'. You could also write "Il se mit en colère", but this is a totally different tense...


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/es-irl
  • 1394

Thank you, that makes sense.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Nathan173901

Is it possible to hear the difference between il s'est mis (passé composé) and il se mit (passé simple)? Because the meaning is the same and the latter tense would be more likely used in a book.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

Yes, there is a difference: se is pronounced /sə/; s'est is /sɛ/.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Kevin968039

Over cold coffee? Can you say "issues" ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PaulBouche7

First world problems!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Martyn413385

It's all very well trying to make some form of literal translation work, but none of the alternatives discussed here sit very well in English. If you ignore the French for a moment and consider what this is about then in English we would probably say something such as: "His coffee was cold, which made him angry." or, if you have to use "got": "He got angry because his coffee was cold". However it's all a bit extreme - life's too short to stress about the temperature of coffee, just stick it in the microwave for 30 seconds!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Lng52-._

Re: "Son café était froid alors il s'est mis en colère."
Shouldn't there be a liaison between ..."s'est mis" and ...en..."?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

No, because it would then sound like s'est mise en colère, which is for feminine subjects like elle, and would be ungrammatical for il.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Frigooss

'Café' is masculine in French, so, reading the French sentence, you could also think that the coffee got angry.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

I don't think anyone would interpret the sentence that way. Using alors especially means that there's a causal link between the first and second clauses. How can there be causation between someone's coffee being cold, and that coffee getting angry?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Frigooss

sean.mullen: On one side, you're right, of course, but in French (at least), if the subject of the second part of a sentence is a pronoun (here 'il'), it generally refers to the subject of the first part of the sentence (here 'coffee'). In English, the pronoun referring to 'coffee' would be 'it', not 'he', but in French, as 'coffee' is a masculine noun, it will be 'il' in both cases.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

Where did you learn that "in French, if the subject of the second part of a sentence is a pronoun, it generally refers to the subject of the first part"? I've never heard that before, and it frankly doesn't make sense. Of course il can refer to a masculine object as well as a male person, but you're being pedantic; coffee doesn't get angry. Alors is a subordinating conjunction, and the subjects of subordinate clauses don't have to match the subjects of independent clauses in any language I know of.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Martyn413385

Haha. Perhaps you are seeking obtuseness (if that is a word) where none exists! Try thinking about a literal translation of the second clause: "...so he put himself in (a state of) anger." or ".. it put itself in a state of anger". Inanimate objects/materials are not generally able to do this. However as we move forwards into 2022 perhaps AI and machine learning may eventually create a type of coffee that will start frothing and bubbling with anger as it cools off - rather than the coffee in my old-fashioned percolator that pops and bubbles as it gets hot :-D


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Barry542665

There is no difference between your answer and if you wrote “...so he’s angry.” The meanings are the same.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/sean.mullen

No, they aren't. Getting angry in the past doesn't imply that he continues to be angry in the present.

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