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"Aangezien de man oud is, rent hij niet."

Translation:Since the man is old, he does not run.

4 years ago

27 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/springbett
springbett
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Is there any difference between "aangezien", "doordat" and "omdat"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TuncTurel

From what my Dutch buddies say yes there is. It's a little bit difficult to explain. There are slight differences in the situations you use them. I'm going to talk to some Dutch friends and let you know soon.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dante345909

If you pay attention, you will notice that "aangezien" is the past participle form of "aanzien", which means "look at", "consider".

  • So... considered that the man is old, he cannot run.

in doordat, you can notice that door means "due to", "by means of", and dat means "that".

  • So, in ik ga omdat ik van dat hou you literally mean "I go due to of that* I like it"

They are pretty much the same. ☺☻☺☻

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dmfarley

I'm sure, like there are differences between "seeing as" and "because" and "since" and "given that" in English, there are differences in Dutch. At this level, you should probably not sorry about nuance yet.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TuncTurel

Aangezien is a tricky bit of word. I think there are many translations to it and the translation here doesn't suffice to explain the literal meaning. Aangezien doesn't only mean since or because. It means the following words from what I researched: Forasmuch, inasmuch, seeing (that), so far as, with regard to so much as... So perhaps there are a multitude of translations in this context:

1-Due to the fact that the man is old... 2-With regard to the fact that the man is old... 3-Given the man's old age... (old man's age) 4-Due to the man's old age... (old man's age) 5-Seeing that the man is old...

I know already some of these translations are a bit of a stretch but it's wise to consider the evasive nature of this word's translation.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/schmidtyhotsauce

Why is it "de man oud is," instead of "de man is oud?"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/smcerleane

Because it is a subordinate clause. The verb goes to the end. In the main clause (rent hij niet), the verb is in the second position. No, it's in the first position, you say. It is considered the second position because it is the second clause. Make sense?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/EricVanErt

It is stuff like this that honestly, truly, deeply makes me worry that I am never going to understand Dutch word order. What you said I guess kind of makes sense to me, but I fear that I am centuries away from being able to recognize this in speech.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tbsc_
tbsc_
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I'm in feeling like that too, but I'm hoping training a lot will help.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KevinM.207

Hmm, while I can understand taking the approach that the main verb for the overall sentence is still in the "second position" because of the presence of the subordinate clause having moved to the first position (for emphasis) I believe that the approach taken in the "Tips & Notes" second would be more easily seen by most learners:

When a subordinate clause starts a sentence, the verb and subject of the main clause of the sentence are inverted.

Hij rent niet aangezien de man oud is. --> Aangezien de man oud is, rent hij niet.

It is probably also just worth noting that, as can be seen above, subordinate clauses always use a SOV order.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlexDSSF
AlexDSSF
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There are old people who can and do run, you know.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Cirro7

thats true

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/caioXYZ

Why not "given that"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Filjan
Filjan
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And any not "seeing that", a common expression on England

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lillanaa

would "since the man is old, he can not run" be accepted? i didn't try it, i'm just wondering if that is an acceptable translation.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dmfarley

I doubt it since you've added another verb that is not in the original sentence.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tyas2709

It has a different meaning. Just because the man no longer runs, doesn't mean that he can't. I see it like the man used to run regularly, but then he stops. But if certain circumstances arise -- say, a dog chases him, he still can run away from it.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lewons7
Lewons7
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what about 'as the man is old......'

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AvshalomHalutz

I am answering this question as a strengthening questionaire but I don't remember ever actually learning this before...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/orionoda
orionoda
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difference between aangezien and vanwege is usage, mainly? Vanwege, in the other lesson, was translated as "because OF", but can it be used simply as "because"? e.g., Ik werk vanwege, heb ik het nodig? Or would that be Ik werk aangezien, heb ik het nodig?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JasonHamje

I know this is ancient but I still wanted to reply: I believe "vanwege" only applies to noun/pronouns. The example sentence was "Zij komt niet vanwege hem" (She doesn't come because of him). Whereas another sentence might go "Zij komt niet omdat hij dat zegt" (She doesn't come because he says so). You could not substitute vanwege for omdat or vice versa in either of those sentences.

(at least that's my understanding, if I'm wrong I'd love to be corrected)

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeBlamires
MikeBlamires
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"The old man does not run since he is old." Was not accepted

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/El2theK
El2theK
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Because it's a different sentence.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeBlamires
MikeBlamires
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Not really. Look at the way Spanish and English differ in phrase order but communicate the same sense.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/El2theK
El2theK
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Your sentence would translate to:

  • De oude man rent niet aangezien hij oud is.

What's the difference?

  • The original sentence says since the man is old, not since he is old.
  • The original sentence says he does not run, not the old man does not run.

You cannot just switch the subjects in clauses he and man, nor can you just change the man is old to the old man.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MikeBlamires
MikeBlamires
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Thanks for your time, I stand corrected.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JoelGibson1

Can someone confirm if I understand this right?

'rent hij' <- inversion between the subject and conjugating verb because they are not at the start of the sentence 'man old is' <- 'is' is the verb in this case, and gets shifted to the end of the clause because we have a subordinating conjunction for the subclause.

But then what makes the first section the subclause? "The man is old' seems like a valid sentence on its own, as doe 'he does not run'. Is it only the placement of 'Aangezien' from which we can tell?

2 years ago