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  5. "I have never had a motorcycl…

"I have never had a motorcycle."

Translation:Ik heb nooit een motorfiets gehad.

August 19, 2014



Also consider the word "bromfiets" for motorcycle. It was the common word for the early generation of motorcycles in the 50s and 60s.


bromfiets nowadays refers to scooters "brommers"


can "nooit" come after "een motorfiets" here without damaging the meaning or correctness of the sentence?


That's wrong to my native ear, if it were a specific motorcycle i.e. "Ik heb de motorfiets nooit gehad" it would be correct Dutch, as would "Ik heb nooit de motorfiets gehad", both meaning the same, but with different parts of the sentence stressed when spoken.


I wondered the same thing, George!


No, apparently that's just wrong.


Hmm. First correct answer given as "Ik heb nooit een motorfiets in m'n bezit gehad".

I am not aware of this course ever having dealt with this contraction ("m'n"). I was dimly aware it did or might exist, but probably only because it features in so many WRONG choices. If they were there to lure us astray, I assumed they had some basis in fact - they need to look like real Dutch, even if only a beginner would fall for it.

So usually, "m'n" in a multiple choice answer has been a clear sign to me it's wrong - because we've never discussed that.

So I'm surprised it's given in one of the model answers here.

Am I mistaken that we've never covered it? Can it happen with other possessive pronouns (particularly zijn->z'n)? Are there rules about when it can, or indeed must happen?


M'n, z'n, d'r (haar).

Generally only used in spoken language.


So it's a bit questionable, then, to give it as the "correct" answer in a written exercise? Especially as the first or preferred answer?

Are there cases in spoken Dutch where it would sound odd if you didn't use the contraction, or is it always optional?

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