"Todavía no es de noche."
Translation:It is not yet nighttime.
It's too do with the subtle distinction between "night" = "noche" and "nighttime" = "de noche".
I put "It is still not nighttime" and it was marked wrong. Google translates "it is still not nighttime" as "todavía no es la noche" and "it is not yet nighttime" as "todavía no es de noche". But I can't detect any difference in the meaning of the two English sentences.
I think that "It is still not nighttime" should be accepted. However, I do not recommend putting too much faith in Google translate. It often provides translations that are poor, and sometimes completely wrong, even to the extent as translating it as the opposite of the correct meaning.
Very true about Google Translate. My understanding is that it It works by pattern-matching on compared translations of known works, and not by any real translation. Still, it seems useful, especially with the feature where you can usually see alternate translations by clicking on the translated words.
as several people have stated above, "de noche" connotes "nighttime." Without the "de" I believe you would have been right
I peeked and it said todavia means "not yet" also, so why is "it is not yet nighttime" wrong?
Google says "todavia no es de noche" translates to "however, it is not night"... I think it would have been "ya" instead of todavia if it meant "yet."
Is there a difference between "aun" and "todavia"? and can you use it in either case?
"Ser" is used to say something is at a particular time.
I found the "Practice Quiz" on this page to be very useful for knowing when to use "ser" or "estar". The discussion is useful too, if you like reading lessons first, but me, I like the duolingo way of just jumping right in with the quiz. These spanishdict quizzes have a little explanation each time of why the answer is correct, even when you get it right. http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/41
Why is "It still isn't the night" wrong, but "It still isn't night" is right? In English (to me, anyway) they mean exactly the same thing.
Those sentences would be different in both English and Spanish.
"the night" refers to a specific / definite night. Consider the difference between these two questions...
- Is it night?
- Is it the night?
In the first one we would say "Yes", as long as the sun has set, because it is night.
In the second one, it could well be night, but not the night (i.e. a specific night already mentioned).
Yes, it is incorrect. "The night" implies a specific night, so the Spanish would include "la noche" (rather than "de noche")
thanks for the clarification, made sense after reading the comments. similar to "tonight's the night".
The dictionary hints completely messed me up, and I couldn't figure out what this sentence was supposed to be.