It's odd how instead of "I am a woman" it's I woman am, when literally translated.
Actually, it's "Am woman I/me." VSO word order, and my first impression is that here woman is operating as the subject and the speaker as the object, which is an interesting take on things.
The verb "to be" never takes an object, in English or in Irish. In this sentence, both "I" and "a woman" refer to the same person who is the subject of the sentence.
If like you say the person ("I") is the subject, then is the VSO really the formula of an Irish neutral utterance? Logically, I agree, there's no object in "I am a man", it's merely a statement of identity. But in formal grammar terms, "I" is the subject, "am" is the verb and "a man" is still... the object for the lack of a better formal term, right? So, help me understand (and some languages' beauty really is in a different view of reality), should we rather think of this idea in Irish way as of "a man is me"? Yet, if we put logical stress on "man", then "the" is required in English, which is probably not the case here. So, coming back to the formula, is it really VSO or rather VOS? Thank you for reading through :)
In the sentence I am a woman, "I" is the subject and "the woman" is a subject complement (to be specific, it is a predicate noun). On top of that, the copula is a defective verb with separate rules of grammar to every other verb in Irish.
Try not to think in terms of what phrases would literally translate to in English - this will confuse you when you move on to new skills which use the same Irish words in slightly different ways that "break" the English framework you had been relying on. Learn the patterns and practice them, and eventually they will start to feel more natural to you :)
"Man" in your sentence is a predicate nominative-a noun that renames the subject. Linking verbs like is, don't take objects, only action verbs do that.
In French, we call it a complement, an object. Or maybe I'm not good enough at linguistics.
I thought the same, subject and predicative are linked by the verb to be, it is just another order.
V(PN)S verb + predicate nominative=subject
V(SC)S verb + subject complement = subject
or simply: verb stating that the following two nouns are equal. noun=noun
It's the same with a lot of languages where words are flipped like that. "Le chat noir" in french literally translates to "the cat black" in english.
It’s not a question; in Irish, the verb usually comes first in a sentence, but verbal particles such as An would come before a verb to introduce a question.
So, the original formula is Verb+Subject+Object >> there is no Object >> Verb+Subject >> Add a subject complement after the Subject >> Verb+Subject+S.C. So the S.C.'s order is after the Subject, right?
The short answer to this is that the copula (is ... mé, etc) is different to all other verbs and it doesn't obey the normal rules for verb order :)
Irish doesn't have an indefinite article. Any time you see a noun without the definite article ('an'), it can be translated into English with or without the English indefinite article.
The indefinite article "a" is used in the more common statement in English. "I am woman." is a song and a powerful feminist statement. One needs to know that the Irish statement is the only way to say both, but that it is used for the common statement most of the time. In English, when you say something about yourself, you will use either the indefinite article or the definite article with a noun, unless you are saying that you are the entire category as in the song. If you say "I am woman." then you are not just saying you are a woman, like many others, but that you are the whole category representing them all. "A woman and a girl" is also accepted for "bean agus cailín" as well as "woman and girl", because the phrase could be talking about two people or two categories of people.
I will try to explain with an example.
It's the same thing with English/French.
French has more articles than English.
When you say I eat chocolate, in French you need an article, the "some" translation is mandatory: Je mange DU Chocolat. (du = some)
That's difficult for a French that is beginner in English to translate "I eat chocolate"., but no article = partitive article = some. It's an habit to take.
When you say "Men like war" in English, it's also confusing for a French beginner in English, because there is no article. And French needs article!
You have to translate it in French "THE men like THE wars", as articles are mandatory. So every time, as a French, I see a sentence with no article in English, and it's a generality, I have a hint I have to translate if adding "the" in French,.
Men like war => LES hommes aiment LA guerre.
So, you see, when it's always the same translation, the same kind of meaning, you know how to add the missing articles.
Usually that’s the case, but is is generally an exception; however, its s does sound like “sh” when it’s next to a pronoun that begins with a slender vowel — is é, is í, is iad, is ea.
The copula 'is' is one of the few exceptions where s is pronounced 'broad' despite coming beside an i. I don't personally know why.
I'm living in Irish so I decided to brush up on my Irish skills but I'm confused as to why "I am woman" is wrong if "an" has no direct translation.
What is the difference between bhean and bean, how come bean is used and not bhean.
That question has been asked and answered at least 3 times already in this Sentence Discussion.
The Irish for "woman" is bean. Certain grammatical features in Irish cause lenition of the following word (a séimhiú or "h" is added after the initial letter). One of the causes of lenition is the singular definite article an when it comes before a feminine noun. Another source of lenitition are the singular possessive adjective mo and do, for example.
As there is no source for lenition in Is bean mé, bean isn't lenited.
That question has been asked and answered already in the comments above.
To repeat an answer that has already been provided multiple times, bhean has a séimhiú, bean doesn't.
There are a number of things that can cause this - the most basic cause is that feminine nouns (like bean) are lenited after the singular definite article an.
Is it supposed to be "bean" or "bhean" for woman? I've been corrected by the system both ways telling me I have a typo, and I'd like to learn which way is ACTUALLY correct
Certain grammatical situations require lenition, e.g. turning bean into bhean. One common example is after the definite article an for feminine nouns, e.g. an bhean.
Doing this on a phone, where accent marks are nonexsistent, is annoying. I hate seeing the "you have a typo in your answer" when i literally cannot help it.
Just hold the key down and most phones will give you options of all different forms of the letter with many different accent marks available and you can slide over to it.
On phone, it's even easier. You download a keyboard app (for instance MULTILING is very good), download the dictionary you need, and voilà, you're done!
I don't know if Munsterisms is acceptable here, but another way to say it is "Is bean ea mé".