Again the e in the middle sounded like pe to me although I guessed it was e. I've complained.
'we ate and drink' sounds like an unnatural translation. What about 'we ate and drank'?
Because you have the second verb "drink" that is only a present, it indicates, in this context, "comemos" is also a present. As you said "We ate and drink" makes no sense, it must be "We eat and drink". It's an example of sentence where we can find the tense of "comimos" according to the context of the sentence, since "comemos" can be Present or Pretérito perfeito without a context.
I think the second option more predictable, but i wouldnt throw the first one away... no much sense but not wrong ;) the Portuguese sentence works both for simple present and simple past
Cool. Its just that the translation is mixing simple past 'ate' and simple present 'drink'.
The words "comemos" and "bebemos" are used both in Present and in Past. The context will determine the tense.
So either "we eat and drink" and "we ate and drank" should be accepted here, since there is no context.
This sentence is ambiguous. It could mean present or past tense. Therefore, I suggest that in these cases there should be an indication of time tense (such as "past") to users.
I'm curious as to why these languages alter the spelling of the verb based on the pronoun...shouldn't the pronoun be enough instead of using come, como, comem, and comemos? Is there a reason they kept these type of grammar and not dropped it? Just curious is all.
Well, English is the different one in this case. All the romance languages (Portuguese, Spanish, Italian, French, Romanian...) change the ending of the verb depending on the grammatical person and number, and also German. So English - and its astounding simplicity and practicability - is the one who should be curiously questioned. ;)
At first I thought this was a funny (in a cute way) English-centric view but, the reality is that Brazil is pushing Portuguese this way with their pronouns that all use 3rd Person conjugations. Then using the 2nd Person (tu) conjugations in the imperative because it matches the 3rd Person Indicative. Você, ela, ele, a gente (we), o senhor, a senhora, and so on, which make the inclusion of the pronouns more necessary (more like English) than in the other versions of Portuguese.
Anyway, Romance languages are called, "pro-drop" because the conjugations of the verbs (or other language conventions) indicate/infer the subject making the pronouns unneeded.
The English system though is pretty nifty, even if the pronouns are mandatory. :)
But English has its own grammar issues.
hello, can someone please explain the difference in pronounciation between the accents?
Hello! So, the accents exist in Portuguese because then anyone can always know exactly where the tonic syllable is in any word. I suggest you to check the rules if you want, but they're a bit complicated for who is still learning this language and it often confuses Portuguese speakers themselves; I don't think it's very complicated and actually think it's a very very intelligent way to help people pronounce words just by seeing how they're written.
So, we have two accents that can indicate where the stressed syllable is: the acute accent (á, é, í, ó, ú) and the circumflex accent (â, ê, ô). Both accents have the same function, but they indicate different tones of the vowel:
ó = mop, lock ; ô = close, show é = met, set ; ê = eight, say
We say the acute vowel is "open" and the circumflex vowel is "closed" because the mouth openness changes according to the tone.
The pronunciation of the sentence would therefore be:
"NÓS côMÊmôs e bêBÊmôs"
I'm glad I could help! If you got any doubts, you can ask me anything and I'll try to answer as well as I can! I know duolingo is complicated sometimes 'cause it simplifies things so much..