I think that they put these weird sentences in to make us think outside the box. Otherwise it's easy to just guess at an answer. I know that, when my daughter and I were learning sign language,we would tell each other weird things such as, 'I have a pink dog and a blue giraffe.' Otherwise it would have been too easy to guess that she was saying, 'I have a black dog,' simply because I knew that to be true.
This isn't actually Hiberno-English specific. English used to have both multiple forms of the word "you", as many other languages do. "Ye" was one of those archaic forms, which is why one sees it mostly in old works of literature or (often used incorrectly) in works that are trying for an "old-fashioned" feel.
It accepted "You pay the man" and said that "You pay for the man" is another translation. In English, those are two very different sentences. One means you are giving money to the man and the other could infer you treating the man to lunch or picking up his tab at the pub. So, how are they both acceptable translations?
A context situation, perhaps?
You find such information in a dictionary. Besides, "Du riechst wie Fisch" (like) or "Du riechst nach Fisch" (after), but not "Du riechst zu Fisch" (to). It does not even make sense to say that it is "smell TO sth" in German - "to" is just the most frequent translation of "zu", but "zu" is wrong here. The prepositions are just different markers for different roles of the part after. To make it clearer: "Ich rieche nach Fisch" and "Ich rieche nach sieben Uhr" - the first "nach" is "like", the second "nach" is "after".
That is what this sentence means... Someone at the top of this forum already wrote that this means "you pay on behalf of. To pay for something you use "as". You can also use the verb "díol" instead of "íoc":
Díolaim as an mbricfeasta = I pay for the breakfast."
P.S. 'y'all' is plural, never singular.
As a Southerner, I refuse to accept this, and the references that article cites don't really provide any evidence of the singular usage besides anecdote anyway. It is prima facie evident that 'y'all' is a contraction of 'you-all', 'all' obviously referring to multiple people.
I asked a friend who has family from Virginia, and she said that she interprets their "y'all" as singular, but then said that when they say to her "When are y'all coming to visit?" it's understood to be an open invitation to anyone in her family, even though they are talking to her, and she hasn't lived with any of her siblings for years. But she said that if she does visit, on her own, she will be asked "would y'all like some iced tea?"
Most of my understanding of "y'all" comes from characters on US TV shows. It has been consistently referred to as a plural form in any Duolingo comment that I remember reading about translating sibh and related prepositional pronouns. This comment was the first time I saw someone suggesting that it has a singular aspect.
I wasn't clear. This is "you pay on behalf of the man" I was asking for "you pay on behalf of a man". PS I was being facetious about "all y'all" but I've been searching. Apparently well-educated urban Oklahomans, Texan singing cowboys, and black waitresses from Opelika, Alabama use y'all as a singular. And I know I've heard "all y'all".
"all y'all" doesn't indicate a singular interpretation of "y'all" - in the 1st person you say "all us Duolingo users" not "all me Duolingo users".
The question for your well-educated urban Oklahomans, Texan singing cowboys, and black waitresses from Opelika, Alabama is if they ever use "you", and if so, does it mean something other than "y'all". Are they actually using "y'all" in the singular as a "formal you", used with people that they don't know, as vous is used in French?
I used the phrase “well-educated urban Oklahomans, Texan singing cowboys, and black waitresses from Opelika, Alabama” because studies have been made which recorded that those people do use y'all as a singular, and/or report to the questioners in the studies that they do so. The question for my well-educated urban Oklahomans, Texan singing cowboys, and black waitresses from Opelika, Alabama is NOT if they ever use "you", and if so, does it mean something other than "y'all". The question is whether or not, when they are using “y'all “, they sometimes use it in the singular. And the answer is “Yes. They have been observed, by academicians more qualified than I, using “y'all” as a singular, and they have self-reported to other academicians that they use “y'all” as a singular. These are observations, and reports from the field. You can go tell Oklahomans, cowboys and black waitresses from Opelika that they are wrong to do it. Let me know how that works out for you. And if you go find the studies (it isn't hard) you will see that the folk who did those studies were well aware of, were interested in, and reported and discussed, the use of “y'all” as a singular in “understood plural” situations, as markers of group identity, to soften a “you” that seemed too direct, etc., etc. But all of that is moot. It was observed and/or reported that the people mentioned used “y'all” as a singular outside of those situations.
It makes no odds to me personally, but if, as you claim, they are using y'all "to soften a “you” that seemed too direct", then they are treating y'all like the French "vous", and it is no longer a useful translation for sibh, precisely because learners like this person end up with the impression that sibh is a "polite you", rather than a "plural you".
I'll know now not to bother including "y'all" in any answers to questions about the difference between tú and sibh. "You guys" doesn't have quite the same cachet, but at least it's unambiguously plural.