"Drengen spiser bjørnens æble."
Translation:The boy eats the bear's apple.
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Fortunately, the bear is probably too busy drinking beer to notice.
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now, if the boy was drinking the bears BEER, it would be a much messier story
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First the children have the bear's meat and now this boy is eating the bear's apple .. I worry for my country's future generations.
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Does the genitive make the apple definite? That is a linguistical question guys, don't get filosophical with me.
I could imagine eating some apple, not to be indicated more accurately, that belongs to a bear, and translated "the boy eats an apple of the bear". Is that valid?
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I agree! The translation "the bear's apple" is i.m.h.o. synonymous with "THE apple, presently owned by THE of A bear" and not with "AN apple". What do y'all think?
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why would you!? who would risk their life to grab an apple from a bear instead of buying one!?!
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I wrote "æbler" (and it was wrong). Does the singular "æble" can be distinguished from the plural "æbler" when one hears it?
