"She called to ask for an immediate appointment."

Translation:Ella llamó para pedir cita inmediata.

5 years ago

38 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/anniansper
anniansper
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Why is 'UNA cita inmediata' wrong here?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kcmurphy
kcmurphyPlus
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I just did a quick google search, and it seems to be correct ("pedir cita")

I guess that it's just one of those ones that we have to remember.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/F1nalFront1er

I put that and it was counted right.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Herb13
Herb13
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Me too, 8/30/14

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/scottann

I made the same mistake. sigh!

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Spanielle2

yup, same mistake here

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/valeriefaiz
valeriefaiz
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me too :(

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Scatterbrained

tricky: por/para and use or nonuse of articles

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JackM2

Found this video on para/por - it helped me. http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_cBJoq479NM

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BarbaraMorris
BarbaraMorris
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Thanks! That's a super lesson on para and por.

To summarize: Para is for purpose, recipient, destination, deadline.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Eileen635107
Eileen635107
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Thank you! That was awesome!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/whitebabe
whitebabe
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I also put una cita inmediata. I don't understand how that could possibly be incorrect.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lingolizard
Lingolizard
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Why not "ella llamó para pedir cita inmediata"? I recall a previous sentence where "ask for an appointment" was translated to "pedir cita" (without the article) ...

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/joeyfino

Could llamado be used as well?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CatMcCat
CatMcCat
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I think that "Ella ha llamado..." should work, but Duo doesn't agree. Reported.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Will605509

That would translate to "She has called...", which has an ever-so-slight difference in meaning. I can see where that wouldn't have been (and shouldn't be) accepted.

2 weeks ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Echo1125

I’m confused why it is para pedir instead of pedir para? In this sentence, does “para” translate “to”? As in she called TO ask...

Trying to figure out why “Ella llamó pedir para una cita inmediata” is incorrect.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jeffrey855877
Jeffrey855877
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I usually think of para as meaning "in order to", so if you substitute this phrase in the English sentence if order para pedir makes a lot more sense than pedir para - "She called in order to ask for an appointment".

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lesaken
Lesaken
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I believe Jeffrey is correct. "She called [for a purpose]".  The purpose of the call was in order "to ask for an immediate appointment". Quoting (a little loosely) from a thoughtco.com article on Para (https://www.thoughtco.com/using-infinitives-after-prepositions-3078308):

The preposition para is usually used to indicate purpose. When followed by an infinitive, as it is here, para often means "in order to".

However, in English, when preceding the "to" form of the verb  [the infinitive; in this case to ask], "in order" can almost always be omitted without any change in meaning.

So para pedir could be translated in English as "in order to ask for" or, more simply, as "to ask for" with "in order" being implied.

When translating to Spanish, however, the para is NOT optional. To say "I eat to live", for example, you would use "Como para vivir". "Como vivir" simply would make no sense.

In this last example, vivir is the object of the preposition para, and using the infinitive after a preposition is apparently one of its most common uses in Spanish.

Other examples, this time from Duo:

Yo leo para aprender, "I read [in order] to learn";

Él trabaja para olvidar, "He works [in order] to forget".

A further point is that in English the translation could be "She called asking... " - that is, using the English gerund, the "-ing" form of the verb. However,  when a Spanish verb follows a preposition the infinitive must be used, NOT el gerundio.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BarbaraMorris
BarbaraMorris
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Yes, "para" does match the "to" in this sentence.

"pedir" means "ask for". It doesn't need an extra word to match the "for" in "ask for". So "pedir para" is like "ask for for". And "Ella llamó pedir" is missing something, so it's like "She called ask for".

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesB84
JamesB84
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Could one use the verb 'preguntar' instead of 'pedir' here?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kcmurphy
kcmurphyPlus
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No. "Preguntar" means "to ask" in the sense of "to question." "Pedir" is "to ask for" ("for" is included in the verb) or "to request."

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/skepticalways

kcmurphy, I wondered why one needs to use para when the verb pedir already means "to ask FOR." :-(

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BarbaraMorris
BarbaraMorris
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The "para" doesn't go with the "pedir", it goes with the "ella llamó". It matches the "to" in "She called to ask".

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JamesB84
JamesB84
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Thank you

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ananasikit

What is wrong with "una cita urgente"? It seems natural to me and it also was one of the options for "immediate"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/brawny15
brawny15
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Urgent and Immediate, while similar, are not exact synonyms.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Enidarrah
Enidarrah
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'Inmediata' isn't even on the drop down list. It really should be, especially if it is in the correct answer.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SkeletonWalk

¿What is the difference between llamó and llamado?

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lesaken
Lesaken
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The verb llamó is past tense, while llamado is a past participle, meaning it is just one "part" of a compound verb. It is then usually preceded by a conjugation of the verb haber and forms one of the perfect tenses. So, he llamado, "I have called" ("called" here is the English participle). In this instance English uses the same word -"called" - as both past tense and past participle, but Spanish always uses different conjugations. English does this with just some verbs, for example, "I spoke" and "I have spoken"; "I ate", "I have eaten", etc. It would not make sense to say "I spoken", nor to say yo llamado.

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SkeletonWalk

Ur awesome ty <3

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Subidonpop

Didn't accept inmediatamente & should have!

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/brawny15
brawny15
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No, inmediatamente is an adverb, the person is not asking for the appointment in an immediate fashion. The appointment needs to be immediate; she isn't asking immediately.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jeffrey855877
Jeffrey855877
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ella ha lamado para pedir una cita inmediata NOT accepted 25 Jan 2018.

Good grief. Marking me wrong for using present perfect instead of simple past is just stupid. Du hardly ever makes this distinction, and freely interchanges both tenses, except in really obvious cases, which this definitely is not.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jeffrey855877
Jeffrey855877
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Still not accepted. Reported again 8 Feb 2018

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lesaken
Lesaken
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Apparently it is more common in Spain to use the Spanish present perfect tense as equivalent to the English simple past tense (preterite), especially for the recent past, but not so in most of Latin America (according to a thoughtco.com article). Perhaps Duo objects to your answer because of this. Also, just check that you are using the correct spelling: ha llamado!

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chris59318

It burns when she pees

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hannah480749

Ella llamo = she called. Ask for = para pedir An = una (1)..... ???

2 months ago
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