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  5. "Glaonn sé ar an madra."

"Glaonn ar an madra."

Translation:He calls the dog.

August 29, 2014



The new speaker says Glaonn sé ar madra (I cannot hear any an in there, not a shortest vowel).

I know that would be ungrammatical, as ar (at least in most dialects) would trigger lenition without an article (making it ar mhadra for ‘on a dog’), so this remains understandable as ‘on the dog’.

But is it common in everyday Irish? Does this happen with other prepositions?

EDIT: and actually, on a dog (when a dog is really unspecified) would actually be ar madra, so the article cannot be inferred from the context alone…


Yeah I don't hear an either and since I got this sentence as a "type what you hear" sentence I got it wrong


The new speaker typically elides the "n" in an, so that it sounds like she is saying ar a madra (he calls her dog), rather than ar an madra, but it doesn't really sound like ar madra - there is clearly something between ar and madra.


Is it ‘to call’ in the meaning of shouting to summon sb only, or also in the meaning of making a phone call?


Either meaning is possible.


Glaonn sé ar a madra - That is what I hear.


He calls her dog - it seems to be a perfectly reasonable interpretation of what she says, given that she doesn't differentiate between a madra and an madra.


Could this also be: 'He called to the dog'?. I didn't report it because I'm not sure.


No, "he called the dog" is in the past tense. The conjugation of the verb changes. You will come to it later.


Sorry, that should have been "He calls to the dog". I'm happy to just say that the 'ar' is needed for that verb, but wondering if there's any way to translate it correctly.


Perhaps "he calls on the dog".


i tried "he calls on the dog". and it was marked as wrong


That's because you wouldn't necessarily say that in English, but that is what it says when translated literally.


"He calls on the dog" isn't a grammatically correct sentence in the English language.


Well, it could be, in an Alice in Wonderland sort of way, if one was paying a formal visit to the dog...


wombatua: or just if you needed the dog's help. "Today, faced with the ongoing cat-infestation crippling the nation, the president calls on America's dogs..."


"He calls on the dog" isn't grammatically correct. Really? I've been wrong for 57 years then. Must go back to school ;) Seems to me like normal usage on this side of the pond


Nope, this is definitely the present tense. If it was the past tense, it's be 'ghlaoigh sé ar an madra'.


"He calls on the dog," is what I'd say in Hiberno-English to be fair, but it's probably not grammatically correct. "Call on him there wud ya?" is definitely something said in my house Seosamh1875!


Ar follows the verb glaonn always???? That's why is it in the sentence?


For the most part, if you are "calling" for the purpose of communication, as in this sentence, it will be glaoch ar.


so glaonn sé leis madra would say he calls his dog ?


No — “He calls his dog” would be Glaonn sé ar a mhadra.


So in Irish, you call "on" someone. Interesting...


I read it as the same thing we have in Norwegian, the expression would be "roper på", a verb plus the preposition meaning "on". The verb alone would mean "shout", but the addition of the preposition particle changes the meaning so it indicates addressing someone in a loud voice because you want them to come to you or answer you.


Is glaoigh a 2nd conjugation verb or an irregular? I know we have to remove the "igh" ending to get the stem, and then add the broad ending aíonn, but this one's different. Guessing it might be an exception to simply use nn not to create a 5-vowel string with the 2nd group broad ending...


So, if I understand all this correctly, AR means ON in this sentence because the verb needs it as a complement, but it needs not be translated in other languages. ? I understand you English speakers do not call ON the dog, but simply " call the dog ". Like we do in French " Il appelle le chien " or in Spanish " El llama el perro" or " llama al perro" . In German " Er ruft den Hund" . Am I correct ?


I couldn't hear anything between the ar and mhadra but went back and listened a couple dozen times with head phones. There it's definitely something there but whether it's "an", "é", "í" or "a" I've no clue it could be any of them except "an" She definitely does not say "an"


As I understand it the ar o.k. this instance does not mean anything but instead to complete Glaonn. Glaonn sé ar an madra. To my understanding means he telephones the dog, but you don't translate it that way.


I'm confused is "to call for something" not a term one could use. So "he calls for the dog"?

  • 1450

No. If you are communicating with someone (or something, like a dog), you don't typically say "call for".

"Call for" can mean "demand", "require" or "collect/pickup".


So ridiculous. He calls his dog. He calls to his dog. WRONG again!


It's not 'his dog' but 'the dog'.

However, if you put 'He calls to the dog', and it wasn't accepted, please report it.


Shouldn't madra be lenited here?


In Donegal Irish, it would be ar an mhadra, yes. Or, probably more accurate, ar an mhadadh


Thanks. I forgot for a second that the other dialects eclipse sometimes.

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