"Endelig betaler vi manden."
Translation:Finally we pay the man.
Why does the "vi" come after the "betaler" in this? Would this not make it "Finally do we pay the man"?
Not necessarily. This phrase is just what inversion looks like Danish. I guess it is so that if we have anything but the noun for the first word, we put the noun after the verb which comes second. You can compare the thing to German and see the same.
to any German speaker: I have German heritage on my dad's side, my best friends dad is also strongly german and my other best friends speaks german. however on my mum's side I have several people killed by Nazis in WW2. would it be a good and respective thing to learn german and betray my mum's side? I need anyone to help. any advice even. is german easy or hard?
Although I don't see how learning German would be "betraying your mum's side" (The German Nazi party may have predominantly spoken German, but that doesn't mean speaking German makes someone a Nazi), I think this question would be better suited to the German discussion page rather than a Danish sentence discussion. (On the website, on the bar at the top, click on "Discussions" and then "New Discussion" and under "Discussion Topic" select "German" and ask the question there. But again, I don't understand how learning a language would be seen as betrayal just because a certain group of people spoke it.