I believe that dchal95 is talking about how the word "wherefore" has become archaic, "losing" its meaning in popular contemporary English, rather than implying that it now means something else. That seems like the only logical explanation.
When learning Romeo and Juliet not all of us are taught that wherefore means why, and not where. I was an excellent student and was very surprised to find this out in my 30s. I believe most English speakers also think wherefore means where.