Valer-worth / cost - costar. It feels really nitpicky but cost and worth arent the same thing. An item at a yard sale may cost a little bit of money but it may be worth a fortune. That said, i think your sentence fits perfectly in the context. Report it.
You make a good point. I was thinking in terms of loose conversational English where the terms can sometimes be used interchangeably. "Did you see Emily's engagement ring?" "It cost a fortune." or "It's worth a fortune" could both be used to acknowledge value.
You are correct. They are not the same thing. And nothing should be reported.
To me cost would be used if you are going to by something. Worth I imagine someone trying to sell you something.
Why"es" or "esta" missing here? " IT IS worth...." I would translate this as "worth a fortune"
Vale covers the "it", in the same way "yo" could be redundant for "hablo"
Yes, I know that the "It" is understood. What I don't get is that the verb "is" is missing. I translated this as "worth a fortune" because it wasn't "ES vale una fortuna."
Because VALER is a verb while WORTH is a noun. The latter needs a verb (to be) while the former is used by itself. This is worth = Esto vale
i even don't get this in english. would someone be so kind and eplain this idiom to me? many thanks in advance.
It just means that the value of the object in question is really high. To say something is worth $5 means that one would have to trade $5 for it. It's worth a fortune means that one would have to trade a large amount of money for it.
thanks, the penny finally dropped. I had fortune within the meaning of luck in my mind...
Given a different context "Fortuna" can also mean Luck.
Buena fortuna = Buena suerte
Valer is a verb, not an adjective. Therefore you need to use it without "be". It means "to be worth"
Ok, I understand that valer is the verb and so to be isn't used, but where is IT, as a pronoun? What is worth a fortune? Surely there is a reference to something which is worth a fortune? There must be an object - car, house, concept which hasn't been mentioned at all. I don't understand why only, "it is worth a fortune", and not, "worth a fortune", is the correct answer. I'm not saying that I can't accept IT but I need to understand IT or I won't be able to use IT. Look at how we have both used the word it, because without IT what we have both written wouldn't make sense. :'( Any explanation, especially from a native of Spain [where I live], would be gratefully received.
@Morrigan, the object is implicit here.
When you say "Vale una fortuna" what you really say is "[something that has been mentioned already] vale una fortuna". OK, in English you need the "it" but Spanish is a pro-drop language and it's not needed.
"¿Viste esa casa? Vale una fortuna" (Two sentences and you don't repeat "casa" in the second one) "El ejército está comprando misiles. Vale(n) una fortuna" (Notice that when the referenced something is plural, the verb gets also pluralized and this fact gives proof through the night that what is implicitly assumed in our sentence is a subject → "El piano vale uan fortuna", "Los pianos valen una fortuna")
@ fhouse. I think my problem is not with the Spanish itself but DL's inconsistent way of teaching idiomatic speech at times and other times insisting that the answer must be grammatically correct.. Thanks for trying to explain but my problem is that there is no, el piano or esa casa, preceding. In the exercise nothing has already been mentioned and you would never just say, "vale una fortuna", as you wrote, you would say, "viste esa casa, ¡vale una fortuna! [question marks aren't used in rhetorical questions, and the second bit is a dependant clause, the question mark doesn't function the same as it does in English]. So the DL question and so-called correct answer is flawed because the question is incomplete. What about, "!Vale la pena una fortuna!"?
My Spanish course also taught me that the word "vale" can be used (at least in Spain) to mean "okay".
I'm pretty sure I've heard the Spanish-speaking population here in the states using it. I have used vale as "okay" with them and they don't seem to look at me funny.
because "to value" means "valorar" and not "valer". It's a subtle difference.
Well, mateo136289, i had, "you value a fortune", not realizing it was an idiom. I'm gonna report it, because it is grammatically correct, like yours 201508
I think this a poorly written sentence. "Worth a fortune" should be excepted here, because the is no way of knowing what they were thinking of initially. "It/he/she" all showing under drop-down options so they could all be accepted. When I learn a language a little help to get it is appreciated, and not "implied" required.
I think you actually meant 'accepted' rather than 'excepted. The English translation of the verb 'valer' is 'to be worth.....'. You are quite right, it could be 'it/he/she/you (usted)', there is no way of knowing. So any of these pronouns would be correct, but one of them must be used to make it correct English.
'He/she/it is worth a fortune', or 'you are worth a fortune'.