"When does the man cook food?"

Translation:Hvornår laver manden mad?

4 years ago

8 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/roodhan
roodhan
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Is koger also correct?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MadsHG
MadsHG
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No, because "koger" actually translates to "boiling." For instance: "The water boils" = "Vandet koger". The right word to use in the Duolingo sentence would be "laver" (makes) which is more common but you could also use "tilbereder" which translates to "cooks" in English (but is less commonly used). Hope that helps :-)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/niscate
niscate
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"tilbereder" sounds like the Danish word for the German "zubereiten". Is that correct?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LiseOlsen2

Yes

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/roodhan
roodhan
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thanks, that certainly helps

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KathyKarch

Except in the unit on present tense, koger is defined for us a to boil, or to cook. It literally gives both translations as a viable option, so... ?

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/P-O_D
P-O_D
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Why does laver is before manden?

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PoppyEltri

because you want to be able to say when does the man cook food. to say this, you need "hvornår" (when). then the next part, "does he cook food" which translates to "laver manden mad". if you said "manden laver mad", it would be "the man does cook food". You need to use inversion to flip "the man does cook food" to "does the man cook food. " im not sure if that made sense, but I hope it helped.

2 months ago
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