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  5. "When does the man cook food?"

"When does the man cook food?"

Translation:Hvornår laver manden mad?

September 6, 2014

10 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/roodhan

Is koger also correct?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MadsHG

No, because "koger" actually translates to "boiling." For instance: "The water boils" = "Vandet koger". The right word to use in the Duolingo sentence would be "laver" (makes) which is more common but you could also use "tilbereder" which translates to "cooks" in English (but is less commonly used). Hope that helps :-)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/niscate

"tilbereder" sounds like the Danish word for the German "zubereiten". Is that correct?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/KathyKarch

Except in the unit on present tense, koger is defined for us a to boil, or to cook. It literally gives both translations as a viable option, so... ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/roodhan

thanks, that certainly helps


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/P-O_D

Why does laver is before manden?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/PoppyEltri

because you want to be able to say when does the man cook food. to say this, you need "hvornår" (when). then the next part, "does he cook food" which translates to "laver manden mad". if you said "manden laver mad", it would be "the man does cook food". You need to use inversion to flip "the man does cook food" to "does the man cook food. " im not sure if that made sense, but I hope it helped.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/JulieJosephine

THAT'S A VERY GOOD QUESTION INDEED ! :D


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/MeuamP

Why does it pop up as hvornaar on my computer ? Why the two "a's" ? Is that incorrect ?

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