"Education has a purpose."
Translation:Tá cuspóir leis an oideachas.
I made a little research on GnaG and it seems that "le" can express property in the same way as "ag" (but "le" is the only choice whean dealing with body parts or acquaintances). Still, I could not find any particular reason why "ag an oideachas" should not be considered correct here. I hope someone will show up and enlighten us.
OK, most of us get that Irish uses leis instead of ag here, but no one has explained WHY. That is, what are the rules concerning use of leis to express "having something? For instance, would "I have a purpose" be Tá cuspóir liom? Would "Education has a price" be "Tá praghas leis an oideachas"?
With a foreign language, sometimes you just have to note, accept and learn certain constructions. After all this language leads off with the verb and answers questions using the same verb instead of "yes" or the negative form instead of "no". After a while (years actually) my mind is somewhat used to this.
If I restructure to remove the English idiomatic expressions, I feel that I get a common meaning that "there is a purpose for one to have an education". So the sense that I get then is that the "purpose" comes along "with" the education rather than being a property of or possessed by the abstract object called "education". Does that help at all?
Same doubt. Is it because you can’t ‘have’ a purpose, because an abstract noun can’t ‘have’ something, or is this kind of ‘having’ just expressed with another preposition since there is no idea of possess in Irish in the first place? I looked up cuspóir in the dictionary and its first meaning is just ‘target’, then ‘purpose’. Can I think of the whole phrase as “there is a purpose [an end] in/through/by education”?
Because the English given is not a literal translation. That doesn't work in many cases and you have to dig down to the underlying meaning then match it to something equivalent in the culture of the other language. There is an expression for Gaeilge that comes from literal translation: Bearla cáis. (English cheese) It sounds condescending, doesn't it?
GRMA. I only ever heard the term, without seeing it in text. Sensing a sort of denigration in using it, my hypothesis made sense at the time. The Collins app gives "anglicism" and it looks as if "cas" (twist) is compounded with Béarla. So is this from the grammatical order being twisted into English order?
The chas ending is more like "ism" in English.
Anglacánachas - "Anglicanism (about religion)"
Caitliceachas - "Catholicism"
impiriúlachas - "imperialism"
ábharachas - "materialism"
Even oideachas can be understood this way - oide being a teacher or tutor - if "tutorism" was a word, it could mean "education".
Think I've finally figured out what SatharnPHL and other were trying to say about this. Take this incredibly generic sentence.:
"X has Y"
In most cases, this would be Tá Y ag X in Irish. But, if "X has Y" can be sensibly reworded in English as "There is Y to X", then Irish would have it as Tá Y leis X
For example, "Paul (X) has an apple (Y)". Saying this as, "There is an apple (Y) to Paul (X)" makes no sense, so it would have to be "Tá úll ag Pól".
But, "His madness (X) has a method (Y). Saying this one as, "There is a method (Y) to his madness (X)" makes perfect sense in English, thus Irish would translate his with le instead of ag. (Note, I have no idea how to say madness or method in Irish).
Hopefully, this answer is both correct and understandable. Would appreciate comments on either aspect.