"¿Te gusta el verano?"
Translation:Do you like summer?
They should stop teaching "gustar" as "like" when it means "pleases". This is much easier to learn when you realize it is "summer pleases you" instead of "you like summer". That might be the message but it messes up the grammar.
I don't think a clear answer has been presented. If the correct English translation is "Do you like summer?", then why not just say "Gusta el verano?", or "Usted gusta el verano?" ? Would those sentences work as well? Please explain.
Gustar is one of those verbs where "it does the action to the person" so the indirect object pronoun must be used (me, te, le, nos, les) and the verb is conjugated according to the SUBJECT (not the person) so that's why it's "te gusta el verano" and not "tu gustas el verano or usted gusta el verano) Gustar is conjugated in agreement with "el verano" (the subject) and will always be conjugated in the 3rd person singular or plural (gusta or gustan)
Why is this NOT "Te lo gusta el verano?" Isn't "summer" the direct object of the verb "like"?
No, el verano is the subject here, which you can see at the rest of the sentence: "te gusta" instead of "tú gustas". That's because gustar does not really translate to "to like", but rather a word with doesn't have a proper translation in English. You can substitute it with "to please", though: "The summer pleases you."
The thing that's enjoyable is the subject, and the enjoyer is the direct object.
Also you don't need to have lo/la in the sentence if you already name the object. One of them is enough. Only le is required if there's an indirect object.
I beg to differ with MissSpell.
As a native (American) English speaker, I find the article "the" here is optional. I actually prefer it myself - "Do you like the summer?" but I would consider it to be the discretion of the speaker. Hence, "Do you like summer?" and "Do you like the summer?" are both acceptable (in my book).
There is a subtle meaning difference worth noting:
If I ask "Do you like summer?", I'm only asking your opinion about summer generally as a season - a mass noun, if you will.
If I ask "Do you like the summer?", I could be asking about the summer we are currently having, or about summers generally.
You probably know this now but for benefit of others..... Droma is correct that it should be túvbut misses the point of your question I think. Literally it is not "you like" (hence "do you like" as question) but "summer pleases you" so the thing that changes is the object thus: me gusta = it pleases me = I like, te gusta as above, nos gusta = it pleases us = we like. Notice if it is several things that we like eg apples it becomes " nos gustan manzanas" ie apples (a plural) please us hence gustAN.
I just learned about verbs like gustar that "does the action to the person" so the indirect object pronoun must be used (me, te, le, nos, les) and the verb is conjugated according to the SUBJECT (not the person) so that's why it's "te gusta el verano" and not "tu gustas el verano"... Gustar is conjugated in agreement with "el verano" (the subject) and will always be conjugated in the 3rd person singular or plural (gusta or gustan)
"te" is both a direct and an indirect object for "you" (informal)
"tu" is an adjective for "your" (informal)
"tú" (with the accent over the "u") is the noun 'you" (informal.)
I'm becoming more and more confused by this. If someone could please clarify for me whether this is my or Duolingo's error:
My understanding is that "gustar" is a transitive verb, and so is acting on the person pointed to by the "te" pronoun. Therefore I would interpret this as "Does the summer please you?", although Duolingo reports this as incorrect.
What am I not understanding here? Thanks in advance.
"Does (the) summer please you?" is a little convoluted, but should be an okay translation for the concept. Feel free to report it.
However, gustar is not transitive. The object te in the sentence is an indirect object, not a direct one. Don't ask why. But yes, it is acting on the person.