"My uncle's car is smaller."
Translation:El coche de mi tío es más pequeño.
From what I understand, coche is used in Spain (and Mexico?). But from what I've heard in Latin America, they really only use carro there.
I answered "El coche de mi tio es menos grande", which would say, 'My uncle's car is less big. Is this just as correct as the correct answer given which basically says it is 'more small'?
Using "menos grande" or "menos pequeño" is wrong. On the other hand, you can say "mayor" or "menor", "más grande" or "más pequeño".
I'm curious: did you do that just for the hell of it?! It is an odd approach to a translation exercise but i can see how you might use it in conversation if you had forgotten the Spanish for 'small' . But if someone used 'less big' in English, we (English speakers that is; not sure if you are one) wouldv explain we say smaller surely?
When you use the word "smaller' in English is a comparative term - so it is smaller than what?
Just imagine using it in a real world scenario:
Me: I have a pretty small car.
You: What do you drive?
Me: A Honda Civic.
You: My uncle's car is smaller.
Smaller than my car. It's all about context.
That's the problem - it's not in context at all, it is just a bald statement.
Why not "mi coche" -- my car? When you even hover over "mi" it says "my." I guess literally it would be "the car of my uncle's" ?
I'm having problems with sentence structure. I wrote "mi tios coche es mas pequeño" In other sentences it is just fine, but here they want all the extra words. I can't figure out what causes the change is structure.
Tíos has only one meaning: multiple uncles. You're trying to apply the English possession construction X's Y to Spanish. The only way to indicate possession in Spanish is with one of the possessive pronouns (e.g. mi, tu, su) or the construction Y de X.
Would someone please explain why some words, like tío, have accents on the second to last vowel, which I thought was where the emphasis would be anyway.