1. Forum
  2. >
  3. Topic: Portuguese
  4. >
  5. "Você devia contar a verdade …

"Você devia contar a verdade para ele."

Translation:You should tell him the truth.

June 5, 2013

24 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/slearch

Does "devia" signify past? Should this be: "You should have told him the truth"?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

it implies a piece of advice on something that no longer can happen. it is used the same way as in English. "você deveria/devia ter-lhe dito a verdade"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/ancranndarach

The English "correct solution" implies that there is still hope for it to happen, though. That is why I, too, am confused at why the tenses do not match up.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/SylvainMar11

From what Paulenrique said, I believe "você devia" is like saying "Você é suposto". "You are supposed to tell him the truth".

I think "devia" is used to express what is/was expected of someone, and "deveria" is used to express what someone should do/have done. It is a subtle difference. Am I wrong?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

Not wrong at all.

Você deveria is both to express what someone should have done as well as give advice.

Você devia is also to give advice, but somewhat more emphatic (You'd better), but not to express regrets. It can be used as "you're supposed to..." as in Portuguese in PTBR we do not use "você é suposto" to express this idea. =)


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/emeyr

"Devia" is often an informal substitute for "deveria" (should).

• You should have told him the truth.
• Você devia ter falado/contado a verdade para ele.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/realfakes

"devia" is for advice, "have told" is in the past; so your sentence would be like "você devia ter contado a verdade para ele". And that sentence would imply that the time is gone, that you aren't able to tell him anymore. A little bit confusing.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oinophilos

Is the consensus that the given translation is correct and that "devia" is used with present meaning and refers to a hypothetical future action?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Bjornhult

Why was "ought to tell....." rejected?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Miguel315

Could one say " Você deve contar a verdade para ele" ?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

Nop.... deve (from "dever") shows an obligation, like "must". Devia/deveria shows a suggestion, advice, like "should"


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/tiescherin

I still do not understand the sentence. If it would be "deveria", I would agree with the solution. I chose "You had to tell him the truth" Did i mix something up?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

Devia works as advice or obligation, depending on the intonation. So, i think both should be accepted!!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/r_i_l_e_y

What is the difference between using "devia" and "deveria"? Duolingo accepts both.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

They both mean "should", sometimes "devia" seems more emphatic. You should have gone to the bank = você devia ter ido ao banco.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oinophilos

Say you are discussing an incident in the past and say "You had to tell him the truth," meaning You were obliged, you had no choice so you did. Would you convey that idea with this Portuguese sentence, or would you say something else?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

Then one would probably use "você teve que contar a verdade a ele".


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oceanotti

In my experience with other romance languages, it is not unusual that some speakers mix up the conditional mode and the past imperfect of the indicative. Those are usually solecisms indicative of a poor command of the language.

I have heard of it in Spanish, specially in the Basque country, where it is practically endemic (ex.: “Si lo habría [] sabido, no hubiera [] venido", instead of “Si lo hubiera sabido, no habría venido”, meaning that if I had known that I would not have come). The same goes for French (ex.: “Si j'aurais su, j'aurais pas venu." instead of “Si j'avais su, je ne serais pas venu." In fact, this one is used as a joke among educated people when one wants to play dumb.)

Maybe in Brazil this use is so extended that the Academy has sanctioned it, or it is simply a case of general tolerance with the rule. Could someone confirm which case is it?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/emeyr

The academy hasn't sanctioned it, but it is ubiquitous. Most linguists consider Portuguese to be a diglossic language with a complicated grammatical structure taught within the four walls of the classroom and a simplified grammar used by just about everybody.


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Oceanotti

Muito obrigado pela resposta!


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/DanmacKinn1

If "devia" is the past tense, why isn't "you should have" a correct response?


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Paulenrique

Should have = devia/deveria ter


https://www.duolingo.com/profile/Ruth313145

I think 'You ought to tell him the truth' should also be a correct answer.

Learn Portuguese in just 5 minutes a day. For free.