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"Nunca he estado en Europa."

Translation:I have never been to Europe.

3 years ago

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/jmcnealy

Why not, "Never have I been to Europe"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/james.ray1
james.ray1
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I reporte d this. I have been heard this type of construction been used, usually for dramatic effect, or emphasis. Google "never have I" and I get 21,700,000 results, most of them about the drinking game "never have I ever". Google ""never have i" -ever" and you get 508,000 results.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mel308
mel308
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I phrased it that way as well, mostly because when I translate things to or from Spanish in my head the word order always seems to make the English more formal. I think this translation would be okay in conversation, though.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BaconChomper
BaconChomper
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I think it's fine, I reported it.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/king.coffey

A year later and Duolingo is still marking it as incorrect. I am a native English speaker and "Never have I been to Europe" is fine. Maybe a little different than normal conversation, but one could say "never have I" to emphasize that it has "never" happened.

In fact, there is a whole drinking game based around the phrase "never have I" (or, um, so I've been told by some bigger boys clearly up to no good).

Reported. I still love you, Duolingo.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

Awkward word order in English.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheEzieDawg

YES!!!! YOU AGREE!!!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Handrisuselo
Handrisuselo
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"Never" is commonly put between "have" and "past participle" (verb 3).

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jeremyk1982

"I never have been to Europe" seems fine as well, but is marked incorrect. From what I've seen in my searches, "I never have..." and "I have never.." are both grammatically correct. They are stylistically different.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gailkw1

I agree. I got it wrong, too. I thought about putting it the other way, but never sure which they want.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/inckwise

This is what I put. Should be accepted.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Elaina5

I agree--very picky!!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/awefulwaffle
awefulwaffle
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In the present perfect, never is usually placed after the helping verb (e.g. have) and before the past participle (e.g. been), as in

  • I have never been to Europe
  • We have never been friends
2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusanSchre1

Why can't you say, "I have never stayed in Europe"? In a previous sentence, I said "I have never stayed at his house," and it was marked wrong.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/arredondo.adam

To me, that sentament is acually closer to how the sentence feels in Spanish (at least in Mexico.) "Nunca he estado en europa" has the connotation of HAVING BEEN IN Europe for a period of time, whereas "Nunca he ido a europa" is more about HAVING GONE TO Europe.

So, I would think of this sentence as equivalent to "I have never been in Europe". But since that sounds awkward in mainstream United States English, I would translate it as "I have never been to Europe."

Now, depending on region and culture, some people might use "stay" to signify living in a place of residence. (For example: "Where do you live?" "I stay on 5th Street.") However, this is nonstandard.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/WackyJack

Same deal with Present Perfect... Ser and estar must be differentiated.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TiffanyEpiphany

What about " I was never in Europe? "

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AchyuthanS

Nunca fui en Europa?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miles_b

No, you wouldn't use ser there. It would be estar. So that sentence would be, "Nunca estuve en Europa."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Jubedube

For piece of mind, that is correct.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/yasaryagcilar

I agree

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miles_b

"I haven't been in Europe" wasn't accepted.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ah56
ah56
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No he sido = I haven't been Nunca he sido = I have never been

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TheEzieDawg

I said, "Never have i been to europe" shouldn't this be correct it is proper grammer, but duolingo said it was not!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lysha210

Never have I been in Europe should be allowed.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/awefulwaffle
awefulwaffle
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In English, never is an adverb which does not normally occur in initial position in the sentence. It is usually placed:

  • between the subject and the simple verb, as in He never asks me
  • after the verb to be, as in He is never on time
  • in the present perfect, after the helping verb (e.g. have) and before the past participle (e.g. been), as in I have never been to Europe

When never is fronted, it is formal and emphatic, and the subject and verb must be inverted. Converting the English sentence into a "fronted" never produces an awkward sounding sentence that would not be used in conversational English:

  • Never have I been to Europe.
  • Never does he ask me.
  • Never is he on time.

In contrast, Spanish is much more flexible than English when it comes to placement of nunca (never) in a sentence. See Modern Spanish Grammar: A Practical Guide page 195 (by Christopher J. Pountain):

  • Nunca and jamás, ‘never’, are the exact opposites of siempre, ‘always’, all of which indicate frequency with regard to the action expressed by the verb. They are equally frequent in initial position, before the verb, or after the verb in a double negative construction. Jamás is less frequent and stronger than nunca.
2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/1920SJJ
1920SJJ
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I put " never have I been to Europe" and you marked it correct earlier, but not now

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miduste

Spanish Dictionary .com has 108 conjugations for estar... http://www.spanishdict.com/conjugate/estar do I really need them all? not going for a doctorate...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CarolGlove

Why is it first person?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/arjuna725

"He estado . . " sounds weird, like having a double vowel sound together. Like 'padre y hijos' becomes 'padre e hijos'. Is there a smoother way to say this? Or is this common?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/syrstes

why is "I have never been to Europe' incorrect.It says the correct answer is I have never ever been to Europe'?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ssophd
ssophd
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if "He nunca estado...." or "He estado nunca..." would it still mean the same thing? Duo sometimes accept literal translation and different word orders, that's why I dont know when to use which.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/miles_b

Those would not be correct. "He estado" should be considered the verb, and the two words should not be broken up. You might hear a native speaker phrase this as "He estado nunca en Europa." and it could mean the same thing, but in my experience, that kind of construction is generally to allow more emphasis on the adverb - i.e. "nunca" would be a stressed word in that sentence.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ssophd
ssophd
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Thanks a lot! your second sentence really made sense.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/OMichaelMageo

I put Europe i have never been to. It was marked incorrect

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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It's a very weird word order.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ElCoronelEsponja

Why not? You're missing out. We're like, the best continent by a country mile (or, if you insist, a kilometre)

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/-KIDDOE-

who has been to europe?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RyagonIV
RyagonIV
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Vivo allí.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lars475948
Lars475948
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If you have never been to europe , why would you use this verb form ???

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CaptainSeaweed
CaptainSeaweed
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OK, this is all a mystery to me! Where is the 'I' in this sentence?

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/king.coffey

"he" is the first person (indicative) version of "haber" (to have). So, "he" is "I have".

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Liakada316
Liakada316
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ME NEITHER!!

5 months ago