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"I do not like any of them."

Translation:No me gusta ninguno.

5 years ago

55 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/aotoolester

Why is it not "No me gustan ningunos"? After all it's any of THEM, plural. Help please.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tdantone

I agree. This is inconsistent in Spanish and English. There's a similar example on duolingo where you can use the plural for ninguno though I can't remember it. In English it could be either "none of them please me" or "none of them pleases me" though in this particular example the plural is incorrect. Beats me as to why.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tdantone

Found it. It's "ninguno de estos carros me pertenece/n. " Either is accepted.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alejandrocarmo

No me gusta ninguno ...or... Ninguno me gusta ...or... Ellos no me gustan.

or... Ninguno de ellos me gusta. But there are a lot of more....

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ralvarez4
ralvarez4
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I'm not entirely sure, but any in this case could be singular or plural. It is not that you dislike "them" but "ANY of them". I don't know what makes for sure singular versus your plural translation though.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aotoolester

Oh I think I get it. The focus is on the "any". Just like in English "any" is singular. I.e "Any of them IS fine". Thanks

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TezraM

Is it because ninguno is like saying not one? "Not one of them is pleasing." Or am I stretching to make sense of this?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Casiquire

It sounds more like "none of them" to me. "None ARE fine". Hmm this is tricky lol.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/OnesimusUnbound

Es possible. However, the error message confusing. I'll report to DL

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/NRPL123
NRPL123
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In English the pronouns "some," "any," "none," "all," and "most" can be either singular or plural, depending on what comes next. Examples: All of the water is dirty. (takes singular verb) All of the papers are dirty. (plural) None of the sand is wet. (singular) None of the children are wet. (plural)

I suppose that doesn't really have to do with the Spanish sentence, but I remember memorizing those English pronouns in high school! I got the Spanish sentence wrong.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BBoyar

why is "no me gusta ninguno de ellos" wrong?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elienos

They have "No me gusta ninguna de ellas" as correct. So yours is correct as well. I reported it cause I wrote the same thing.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Paulalock

No me gusta ninguno de ellos is now accepted (24.2.14)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/maha.kala
maha.kala
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No!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CreMark
CreMark
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And what about "ninguno de ellos me gusta"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/chardodd
chardodd
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I was marked wrong for No me gusta ellos. It says "ellas" Grr...

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Cy-Kill

Not for me it hasn't.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alissabo

how about "no me caen bien ninguno" (assuming "them" is referring to people)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/constructionjoe

Not getting along with any of them is a bit different than not liking any of them. They can be liked and still not get along and vice-versa, as well as, not liking and not getting along with any of them.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ubernichts

Why is it 'ninguno' and not 'ningún'?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

In No me gusta ninguno, ninguno is a (masculine) pronoun acting as the subject of the sentence. Ningún is a adjective (that comes before a masculine noun) so it can't act as the subject. And just for completeness, ninguno can also be an adjective (that comes AFTER a masculine noun), and ninguna can act as both a (feminine) pronoun or an (feminine) adjective (before or after a noun).

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/henry651231
henry651231
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WHy not "no me gusta cualquier de ellos" ??

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

In Spanish, sentences can't have both a negative and an affirmative. So, if you have the negative no gusta then you can't have an affirmative cualquier but must have another negative ninguno. These double negatives are considered poor English but are proper Spanish.

General rule: a sentence can't include both affirmative and negative terms; where one element of a sentence (subject, verb, object) includes a negative term, so should the other elements that need other such terms. Also, one and only one negative term normally is used before the verb. For more details see: http://spanish.about.com/od/sentencestructure/a/double_negatives.htm

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Vdubs1

How would one say "I like any of them" - "Me gusta cualquiera de ellos"?? I punched the english version into google translate and it gave me "Me gusta ninguno de ellos"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

I believe 'Me gusta cualquier de ellos' works, while 'Me gusta ninguno de ellos' does not. Probably a case of google translate getting it wrong because 'ninguno' translates to 'any' in negative sentences.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lisa.a.col

Ah! Should have read your reply first :)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lisa.a.col

Double negative? "I don't like none (ninguno) of them."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/k-kayak

Yes, double negatives are fine in Spanish.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hesolomon

I don't understand the use of singular/plural. In English this would be "They did not please me."

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

In English, I believe it would still be singular, None of them pleases me (which has a different meaning than They did not please me). In English and Spanish, although none/any refer to a plural group (none/any of somethings), the none/any itself is singular.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JefferyGif

OK no one mentions gusto v gusta. Is it "I" or "it" that doesn't like it. Gusta is for "it" but it states "I". Seems it would be "gusta" if one reads it as "it does not please me". I'm glad no one else is confused.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/k-kayak

Gustar is more literally "is pleasing to", so this sentence is "None of them is pleasing to me". The indirect object of gustar indicates who does the liking. Me gusta el libro. "The book is pleasing to me." But in English we say: "I like the book." Te gusta el libro. "The book is pleasing to you." In English we say: "You like the book." The verb form did not change. See http://letsgospanish.wordpress.com/2013/07/13/how-to-use-verbs-like-gustar-in-spanish/

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/pfinstir

Thanks. That was my question.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SFJuan

And just for more clarification, gusta is singular present tense while gusto is singular past tense:

me gusta la comida - I like the food

me gusto la película - I liked the movie

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Lorrae
Lorrae
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Why not "No me gusta ninguna de esas"? Why is "them" assumed to be people?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dana-Nova
Dana-Nova
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Could a correct answer be "No me gustan nadie de ellos" if 'ellos' refers to people instead of things?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ralvarez4
ralvarez4
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Is "Ningún de ellos me gusta" okay?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

No, but you could say "Ninguno de ellos me gusta".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bszalay26
bszalay26
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I did and it wasn't accepted.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CreMark
CreMark
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Well I wrote that and it was marked bad: "ninguno de ellos me gusta"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/junevilleco

no les me gustan ninguno de ellos was accepted

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dianneja

Isn't ellos....THEM??? Why is ellas the correct answer.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jcoupemk2

Why not, yo no los gusta ninguno de ellos?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LuisTrani
LuisTrani
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Because the verb "gustar" in Spanish is preceded by another word referencing the person who is doing the liking, per se. In the sentence "no me gustan," the word "me" refers to the person who is saying that he/she doesn't like something. That is how it is with other pronouns, such as "a ella le gustan" and "a ellos les gustan"

Hope that helps.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mohrchen

Why not "no quiero"? Especially when it comes to persons I prefer querer over gustar.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/CaponiD
CaponiD
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I would really like an answer to this question as well.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sigma462

No quiero means I DO NOT WANT. No me gustan means I do not like.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rowith
rowith
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what is wrong with "no me gusta alguien de ellos"?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/k-kayak

Because "no" is negative, which cannot accompany a positive word like alguien. SFJuan explained that well above and included this reference: http://spanish.about.com/od/sentencestructure/a/double_negatives.htm

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KevieO

I miss this every time. In English I think of it as plural because "them" is plural and use gustan...but I should be thinking "Not even one." and use singular.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/fikoko
fikoko
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There is not Them in correct one , I could not get it

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bnaturally

why is "no me gustan ninguno de ellos" not correct?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alejandrocarmo

Ninguno de ellos me gusta.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/reissecup
reissecup
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What's the difference between ninguno and nada?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jonnybgood21

"yo no me gusta ninguno" was marked wrong....? it says the correct answer is No me gusta ninguno. Why would putting the "yo" be wrong?

1 year ago