"I go towards him."
Translation:Yo voy hacia él.
I too didn't know (and used the personal "a") so I did some research and found this response for the sentence "El perro va hacia el gato." :
"The pesonal "a" is used when you are using and direct object. In this case "Hacia el gato" is a place object (I don't the exact word in English in Spanish is called "complemento de lugar"). "to go" is an intransitive verb, it doesn't have D.O. because the verb has a full meaning."
"You can't have two prepositions next to each other. It would either have to be "el perro va al gato" (but NOT because it's being treated as a personal 'a' – see caiser's reply – since this means "the dog goes to the cat") or "el perro va hacia el gato". Same as in English you can't say "the dog goes towards to the cat"."
Can you give one example of direct object when the 'personal a' is used. It would help us understand the difference between 'hacia' and 'a/al'
AnkitSpanish posted the above a couple of years ago, so AnkitSpanish may have already found an answer to this question and have full mastery of the Spanish "personal 'a.''" If that is the case, this reply here is for those who have never heard of the Spanish personal "a," or who may only have a flimsy notion of what it is.
My reply grew to be rather long, so I’ll just provide a couple of quick examples here:
Veo a la mujer.
Veo al hombre.
A lot more could be said about the Spanish personal “a” and I do so in this thread here:
The personal a is used before a person/group of people/pet DIRECT OBJECT. "... hacia él" =towards him. TOWARDS is a preposition, and "él" in this case is the OBJECT OF THE PREPOSITION "hacia" -- not a direct object.
The word "hacia" is a preposition and so is "a." Plus, "el" without an accent is "the." The phrase "hacia a el" is equivalent to saying "towards to the."
Por usually means “for" but sometimes something like “via" “by way of" or used kind of like the “over" in “over there" (but doesn't actually mean “over" in any way.)
I wrote "Yo me voy hacia el" because that's what showed up when I ghosted over the words and it marked me wrong. I'm still confused so any help?
Though "a" (to) can often be synonymous with many other prepositions to include "hacia," I believe "hacia" is more closely/specifically related to "towards" than just simply "a." If you typed in "a" instead of "hacia" that would be my guess as to why it was considered incorrect.
The equivalent of this in English would be "I am going to towards him."
I also used Michel Thomas (great man). He always said that any type of coming or going always uses 'a'. Of course he could be wrong, but it was useful thing to remember.
WHY DIDN'T ANYONE ANSWER THIS? This is my exact question. Why is the Yo needed in this sentence?
they ask me to translate this sentence but they didn't even teach me the word for "towards".
"Lo" is a direct object pronoun: it's only used for direct objects. The "him" here isn't a direct object. Instead, it's the object of a preposition, and in Spanish, it uses the pronoun "él."
It's a little confusing, because English uses the same object pronouns ("him," in this case) for direct objects, indirect objects, and objects of the preposition. But Spanish uses a different pronoun for each.
I don't know why it accepted voy. And im on mobile!! But i thought it would be yo....