"He has more than her."
Translation:Tá níos mó aige ná í.
Why would it not be Tá níos mó aige ná aici? Is this saying that he has her and he has other things as well? I was assuming it meant she has some, but he as more.
I would translate Tá níos mó aige ná aici as "He has more than she has". Ná in this case is used as a comparison word (than), which is followed by the object form, so it's just saying he has more than her.
Tá mé níos sinne ná í -> I am older than her.
But the comparison is between aige and í? That doesn't make much sense. That sounds like it's saying "More is at him than she is."
It means that he has more than just her (or it). Like, say someone owns a window and a door. Talking about the window, you could say that, meaning that he has more than just 'it' (fuinneog is feminine)
Saying you have more than just her is not common in English and for the most part sounds deeply uncomfortable without context. Far, FAR more commonly meant when one says "I have more than her" in informal English is "I have more than she does" and without any other context clues should always be assumed to be the intended meaning.
Does Irish in fact in everyday informal usage do what English does and shortens "than she does" ná aici to just "than her" ná í? If not, how does one say in Irish "I have more than her" as it would commonly be intended in English to be understood? Because I answered Tá níos mó agam ná aici and got marked wrong, because the answer had to be í.
I think the issue with this one is that the better translation for it would be 'He has more than it'.
But, to answer your question, no. This means literally just 'her'.
That's good to know. And sure that seems a much better translation of the Irish. Of course, most of the time this construction comes up in my review, it's asking me to translate from English into Irish and when I got it marked wrong, I wasn't feeling clear whether Tá níos mó aige ná aici was even a proper Irish sentence meaning "He has more than she does."
aici doesn't mean "she has" - you have to have tá in there to get from "at her" to "she has". So ná aici doesn't mean "than she has". I'm not sure there is any situation where ná aici makes sense.
So, then, this is the grammatically consistent "he has more than her" as opposed to "he has more than she," which is to say that he has her and he as more as well? Since people now use "than her" to compare two people who are the subjects of the same verb, this sentence is now ambiguous.
Actually, I don't remember ever learning that that was the object case of the pronoun. Thanks again.
I'd say if you want to stress that he has her, you'd add a quantifier to it, much as you would do in English ("He has more than her" to mean that he has more than just her wouldn't said in my dialect, unless some mention had already been made about him having her)/
'Correct' English is determined by use. Nobody I know would say 'I am older than she' unless it was formal writing, which is something very different.
Since the program is by default using a prescriptive grammar in Irish, it should do the same in English. It's annoying when the English is poor, and I get something "wrong" even when I'm right!
Tell that to Duo! They consistently use the accusative in thei sentence and count the nominative usage wrong.
The English is consistently wrong on the cue sentences and in the answers. Correct answers like He has more than she and He has more than she does are not accepted. You are correct--the actual meaning of the English answer you are supposed to give does not mean what I think the writers meant it to mean.
To me, "I have more than him" is what an arrogant young woman with a string of men on the line might reply upon hearing the news that one of her suitors has found another woman.
So, if the intent were to say, 'He has more than she has' - we'd say 'Tá níos mó aige ná tá aicí ' ? That sounds a little odd, maybe something is missing.