Duolingo is the most popular way to learn languages in the world. Best of all, it's 100% free!

"You will have reached the boys."

Translation:Tú habrás alcanzado a los niños.

5 years ago

43 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/smontoya
smontoya
  • 13
  • 12
  • 10

I don't understand when an object pronoun is also required. Why is it "TE hemos alcanzado A TI", or "LOS habremos alcanzado A USTEDES", but "Habrás alcanzado a los niños" (without LOS)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

We do not really say "te hemos alcanzado a ti", the "te" already means "a ti", so there is no need to say it (even if DL includes it). "Los" there is not a pronoun, though, it is an article: el niño, los niños.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/josh.ramirez500
josh.ramirez500
  • 20
  • 15
  • 10
  • 9
  • 4
  • 3
  • 2

good job

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/brian.jh.woo
brian.jh.wooPlus
  • 20
  • 17
  • 11
  • 10
  • 10
  • 10
  • 8
  • 7
  • 4
  • 4
  • 3
  • 1605

Then in smontoya's example, why do we need the los in "Los habremos alcanzado a ustedes"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

It is the direct object (a ustedes); as I said, there is no need to say "a ustedes" then, though. Just "los habremos alcanzado" is fine.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/1220j
1220j
  • 25
  • 14
  • 10
  • 8
  • 7
  • 6
  • 6
  • 6
  • 6
  • 5
  • 2

But why no object pronoun in "Habrás alcanzado a los niños"?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

Because the object is already written: Habrás alcanzado a los niños = Los habrás alcanzado.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/sdb614

Responding to Babella, but in the sentence "Los habremos alcanzado a ustedes," the object "ustedes" is also already written so why the los?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

If you have a direct object you will either have a specified noun object "los niños" or a replacement pronoun object "los" rarely both unless the los is ambiguous. In the sentence "los vi", the los could represent "a ellos" OR "a ustedes" and clarification is needed. When starting from a sentence in English you'll never need both because the object will be clearly specified (although I saw them could be "las vi" as well).

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Stumbler
Stumbler
  • 12
  • 11
  • 11

It rejected the ustedes form. And the report button is broken again so I can't report it.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oletuv

"ustedes habrán alcanzado a los niños" was also marked wrong today 2014/06/09. I´ve reported it.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mysieblondie

I've reported it too.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bliam

It also rejected it in the vosotros form

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PKE26318
PKE26318
  • 16
  • 13
  • 12
  • 11
  • 5
  • 3

Llegar should be an accepted verb.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mccomish
mccomish
  • 19
  • 9
  • 7
  • 6
  • 5
  • 3
  • 2

PKE - I am no expert but I think Llegar means more to "arrive at" whereas "Alcanzar" meant literally to reach out and grab hold of - as if one was falling from a cliff. I hope that helps in some way.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JimZTango
JimZTango
  • 25
  • 17
  • 11
  • 74

Why is "Tú los habrás alcanzado a los niños." incorrect? In an earlier example in this same unit, where the direct object was "a ellos", the "los" was required. Can someone help me get my head around when to use "los" and when not to? Is it only when the direct object is a pronoun? Thanks in advance.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

The neoplastic (seemingly redundant) object will be used with indirect objects and only with direct objects when you have to clarify to whom the "los" pertains (a él/a ella/a usted or in the plural forms of these objects.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Justin-B
Justin-B
  • 25
  • 25
  • 8
  • 1731

Based upon what LeoGirard said, and without better context from Duolingo, I think that your answer should be accepted. It could clarify to whom the "los" pertains. (And thanks to LeoGirard for clarifying when to use these pronouns.)

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SDB333

It would be best to simply say "a los niños" and omit the first "los." It sounds very redundant to have the first "los" in there.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ainhoa_20000

The thing is that "los" it's the same as "a los niños", and maybe that's why as it's repetitive, they count it as wrong. I think it's not completely wrong, but is better to say just one of them, we don't say both.

Another thing that maybe you don't now, and so I explain it just in case, is that always, when we have, los, lo, la, las, le, les and is before the verb and is referring to the person that receive the action, is and indirect object, for example: Yo la he visto por" la calle, the "la" is referring to a person, in this case a girl because is "la", so we don't need la he visit por pa calle a ella.

But, if we have los, la or las (that are the only ones that match with the indirect object) and is before a noun, then is a determinant, and is like your the, for example: Yo la vi con al bolsa (I saw her with the a bag)

All in all, our indirect object is more or less like your her/to her, him/to him, them/to them, you/to you, me/to me... and our determiner is more or less like your the: singular and masculine=el, plural and masculine=los, singular and female=la, plural and female=las

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobInco1

"habrás alcanzado a los niños." Should be correct

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KarelSr

Duolingo gives "vos habras alcanzado a los ninos". That is nonsense, isn't it?, I mean the "vos" has really noting to do there?

3 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andras_Gyep
Andras_Gyep
  • 24
  • 18
  • 16
  • 11
  • 9
  • 3
  • 121

It has and it hasn't ... "Vos" is an informal form of "You" referring to the second person singular pronoun but it's only used in really specific geographical zones, a particular region in Colombia (Valle del Cauca) and most of Argentina, these are the only places i can remember. It's not commonly taught because of that and because is really informal. Although if you're going to be in one of those sites you better get used to it.

4 days ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ajacuna
ajacuna
  • 14
  • 14
  • 14
  • 13
  • 12
  • 12
  • 8
  • 2

"You" means "tú", "vosotros" y "ustedes"

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

And "vos"

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mccomish
mccomish
  • 19
  • 9
  • 7
  • 6
  • 5
  • 3
  • 2

Ustedes Habran alcanzado a los ninos still marked wrong today 7 July 14

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jjcthorpe

why "A" los ninos (ie personal "a')?? Isn't "the boys" impersonal unless it is YOUR boys. We don't use the personal "a" when it is just general people ( or animals). or is this sentence really saying "....caught up TO the boys"? Thanks.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JuevesHuevos

I think it's the latter - it's not the personal a, the "a" is attached to the verb "alcanzar" and is included to indicate a direction of movement. (Like entro a mi casa)

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SusanHill1
SusanHill1
  • 25
  • 17
  • 11
  • 3
  • 5

Duo says the first word should be "Vos". Really? Seems like the answers change.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PunkyBriel

that's exactly what I wrote and it wasn't accepted..

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marc577250

Where did the Vos come from? I know it is used in parts of the Spanish speaking world, but this is the first time I have seen it here.

I wrote, "Los habran alcansado a los ninos. (sorry, computer doesn't print the spanish accents and enyees). I don't see what's wrong.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

Too many objects. los niños is a direct object. The seemingly unnecessary pronoun object preceding a verb is USUALLY only found with indirect objects, por ejemplo Les habrán platicado a los niños. This type of pleonastic object will seldom be of the " lo, los, la, las" group of 3rd person objects. Try: Habrán alcanzado a los niños. I wouldn't worry too much about vos unless you go to Argentina. It would be like listening to someone speak English with thou, thy. We understand without using this mostly archaic language and such speakers understand "you" when you speak back. Getting a sense of when objects are direct or indirect is necessary to understand when to use the "le, les" objects and when to use "lo, los". [And then there's the leismo that happens if Peninsular Spanish. Don't go there until you sort out direct & indirect objects.]

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marc577250

Is the object a syntactic pleonasm, a semantic pleonasm or a morphemic pleonasm? (Definitely, too much Monty Python at a young age) But seriously, "El preso numero nueve ya lo van a confesar". Isn't "lo" direct object?

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

Yes. This is not a particularly grammatical sentence. In my explanation about pleonisms I hedged my bet with the word USUALLY. In spoken language when your sentence is well pre-formed in your mind you might have to clarify or emphasize by putting in a "duplicate object". El preso #9 in good Spanish to be an object should bear a "personal a" ....Al preso #9....We can see that it is Latin Am Spanish because in Spain (after about 1500 anyway) it would be "ya LE van a confesar" (an example of leismo).

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marc577250

DL wrote "Vos habras alcanzado a los ninos". Shouldn't it be "Los vos habras alcanzado a los ninos" or "Los vos habras alcanzado"?

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andras_Gyep
Andras_Gyep
  • 24
  • 18
  • 16
  • 11
  • 9
  • 3
  • 121

Nope, in sentence one, "Vos" is an informal form of "You" so it's ok to say "Vos habrás alcanzado a los niños".

  • In "Los vos habras alcanzado a los niños" "Los" refers to the children so it has no place at the beginning, it must be in front of "niños", The children = Los niños.

  • In "Los vos habras alcanzado", "Los" is well placed but "vos" not, because "habrás" already includes "vos" as it's conjugated, so "vos" has no place there, it must be "Los habrás alcanzado". If you want to make an emphasis then remember that the pronoun must be at the beginning as in "Vos (emphasis) los habrás alcanzado" although both examples would be translated as "You'll have reached them".

4 days ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Chris913144

Why is it a los and not just los

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

"Personal a". Sometimes in Spanish there can be confusion as to which is subject and which is object so the peronal "a" is used to clearly indicate the object whether direct or indirect. In this particular sentence there is no confusion because subject and verb use different verb forms but the personal "a" is standard procedure.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Neil281923

Shouldn't "Tú los habrás alcanzado a niños" also be correct?

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LeoGirard

Direct and indirect objects are different in that the former seldom have what seems to Anglophones to be a duplicate or redundant objects. Indirect objects very often do. Direct objects and indirect objects are ALMOST the same in both languages. The indirects can be recognized in English by those that may take "TO" in front of them. The boy throws the ball TO his friend. (Direct action on the ball, indirect action to his friend.) Catching up with is translated by alcanzar defined in dictionaries as "v.tr" that is a transitive verb (ie one that takes direct objects) Tú los habrás alcanzado (alcanzar = transitive) Tú les habrás hablado a los niños (hablar = intransitive)

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/porkrind94
porkrind94
  • 20
  • 9
  • 4
  • 4
  • 4
  • 3
  • 3
  • 2

estoy confundido. The sentence they give to translate is "You will have reached the boys." I put "los habras alcanzado a ellos." Soy clara que" ellos" no es cierto..pero no soy claro por que les ponen "Vos habras alcanzado a los ninos De donde viene la palabra "VOS" Los ninos no son Segundo persona plural y si Duolingo usaron habras en la respuesta, como pueden usar vos que no es Segundo persona singular como el ejemplo nos daron. Gracias a los hablantes de espanol para explicando eso!

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/porkrind94
porkrind94
  • 20
  • 9
  • 4
  • 4
  • 4
  • 3
  • 3
  • 2

ok so I put Vos habran alconzado a los ninos. this time. And got dinged again. They said has to be "habras" Como podriamos saber cual es Segundo persona o tercero persona sin el resto del contexto? Eso es la problema mas grande para Duo.. si no nos dan el resto de los contextos no es justo eliminar uno de las respuestas possibles. Yo comprender que hace mucho tiempo para hacer anadiendo otros opciones, pero tienen muchos voluntarios, como yo quien pueden les ayudar a ellos con esto.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Andras_Gyep
Andras_Gyep
  • 24
  • 18
  • 16
  • 11
  • 9
  • 3
  • 121

Maybe, it was because you should of said "Vos HABRÁS alcanzado a los niños" not "Habrán". When using the pronoun "Vos" remember that this is always an informal form of "You", therefore you'll conjugate the verb according to the second person "Vos habrás" as "Tú habrás" which is another informal form too. When using the formal way of "Tú" which is "Usted" you'll always conjugate the verb according to the third person "Usted habrá" as "Él/Ella habrá", you don't need a context, just remember:

You = Informal = Tú, vos (with an "S" not a "Z") = Second person = Usted irá ahí (formal)

You will go there = "Tú irás ahí", "Vos irás ahí" (informal)

You will go there = "Usted irá ahí" (formal)

Hope i was helpful :)

4 days ago