"The woman was followed."
Translation:La mujer fue seguida.
why is the verb ser instead of estar, isn't it a temporary description? and why is it preterite instead of imperfect if it's a description?
It is just a way of forming the passive voice in Spanish, fue is used with the past particle of seguir functioning as an adjective (therefore agreeing with the subject).
I would use "estaba" because it was an ongoing action. If it said "The woman was followed yesterday", then I would use "fue".
Deactivated's logic beats Duolingo's in this sentence. But the solution is ambiguous without context. Why would anyone downvote a useful comment like that?