"They have earned it."
Translation:Ellos se lo han ganado.
I don't understand where the "se" comes from or why it's necessary. Why is "Lo han ganado" incorrect?
OK, I checked and it seems that ganarse (hence the se) is used often to mean "to earn something". I supposed you could say the reflexive form is used beceuase when you earn something, it also reflects something that happens to you. when you earn something, you yourself change a bit to deserve it, in a phylosophical sense.
on spandict, they have all definitions in both transitive and intransitive. Any natives out there who can explain?
We use the same word for "win" and "earn"="ganar", and this verb is transitive and intransitive in Spanish, but we use it mostly in a transitive way: "I win a medal"="Yo gano una medalla", "I earn money"="Yo gano dinero" (this verb only has a very specific use as intransitive). I insist that "Ellos lo han ganado" should be accepted because as Orb explained: "The reflexive form is used because when you earn something, it also reflects something that happens to you" (I think that he explained it very well). I hope to be useful and sorry for the mistakes, it's still really difficult for me to explain all this in English :).
Nonete, I can't tell when you posted (using my phone app), but praise you for your well-done explanation. It would take me WAY too long to try to write such posts in Español. I would sound like a 3-year-old trying to talk in complex sentences!
Is "win something" used the same way? Because the same logic could be applied to winning as earning. Both imply the winner/earner worked for it, and in both cases, the prize/wages reflect back as something that happened to the winner/earner.
I think you can win by cheating, but you can't earn by cheating
I think you can use either translation 'Ellos lo han ganado' or 'Ellos se lo han ganado' as both correctly mean 'They have earned it.' Using ganarse, puts emphasis on 'They', to something like 'THEY REALLY have earned it.' As Orb noted, this gives it a subtle 'deserved it' meaning.
I totally agree. I think that "Ellos lo han ganado" should be accepted too.
it is probably because ganarse was suppose to be used but yeah i agree it was tricky
Lo han ganado is a good translation, but it does assume that the context (which we don't have here) has made it clear that it is "They" and not "You (plural polite)". It looks like the author has had second thoughts.
Note: the use of the reflexive ganarse is not essential. ganar can mean "to earn" as well.
I can see this is from the reflexive verb ganarse but how come you can say "ha ganado mucho dinero" but not "Ellos lo han ganado" ?
I use 'RID' to help me remember the correct order of pronouns.
RID = reflexive, indirect, direct.
Works every time!
Lo is the DO and has to sit closer to the verb. The IO, se, sits farther from the verb, the center of the universe in Spanish, because one cannot be affected or recipient of an object until it exists.
Isn't right, it's only possible "lo han gandado"; in these cases you can't postpone "lo".
Regercchristie, or any helpful native speaker, Re: Ellas se la han ganado, would that * la mean it was a feminine D-O pronoun? In other words, from context one already knows what they have earned is a feminine word? (Perhaps a citación or una comida gratis*)? I think I am at the level in learning that I just know MORE words to mix up - Ha!
"They have earned it" ---
- "they" can be ellos or ellas.
- "it" can be lo or la.
- in fact "it" could translate to "las" if the "it" refers to "a holiday" which is "las vacaciones" (feminine plural) in Spanish.
Thanks for that reminder about "a holiday." I would have forgotten "a holiday" would have to be translated as a plural with a plural modifier.
Does anyone know any sites (or anything online) dedicated especially for Mexican Spanish? I want to get better at it, but most sources teach European Spanish.