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"No, we do not have babies."

Translation:No, no tenemos bebés.

5 years ago

23 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/RageLikeCage

We don't make babies lol

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dbethiel

So, it is not necessary to explicitly state the nosotros because we can imply it from the conjugated verb. Is this generally the case or are there any good rules on when to be explicit ?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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You mainly only need to be explicit with the 3rd person conjugations (the forms used with él/ella/usted and ellos/ellas/ustedes), because the other conjugations (in most tenses, but not all) can only refer to one person. "Tengo" can only be "I have", "tienes" can only be "you have", "tenemos" can only be "we have", but "tiene" can be "he has, she has, or you-formal has" and "tienen" can be "they have, or you-plural have" so those ones might need clarification. All other ones are only stated explicitly for contrast or emphasis. Here's a good link about this: http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/subject_pronoun.htm

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mitaine56

neiht- tiene cant be he is, but he has. Tienen can only be they have, not they eat. Tener and comer are 2 different verbs with 2 different meanings

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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Sorry about that! I didn't even realize that I accidentally changed the verb. I know the difference between them XD thanks for catching that.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/christiahlove

That's what I'm wondering as well. :/

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Si_Robertson

You defiantly don't have to explicitly state the nosotros in this sentence (I didn't and it was accepted as correct), and there's no way that it could be confused with anything else. It's actually always correct to use just the conjugated verbs but it's often a good idea to clarify who you're talking about. I think neiht20 explained that pretty well.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/touch_2who

'No tenemos bebes' is not the same

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

If you took the first "no" in English, the sentence would still mean the same, right? It is exactly the same in Spanish, just that it feels like the person is answering a question: "¿Tenéis bebés? No, no tenemos".

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Harbinger91

"No tenemos bebes" means that we do not have babies. The prompt is asking us to say "no, we do not have babies", which is "No, no tenemos bebes." It creates a slight difference in that it answers a question and provides emphasis.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/LuisAlfonsoLopez

Then should be = We don't have babies.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mitaine56

luis- it was also correct

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JosephSanzoneJr.

No, we do not have any babies. Please pick something else from the menu.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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Typically, you would need to be explicit only with the 3rd person forms (él,ella,usted/ellos,ellas,ustedes), because the singular forms shares the same conjugations and the plural forms share conjugations as well. All other forms are usually implied enough to not need it.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marzutka

Why not 'No, no tenemos hijos.'?

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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Because "hijos" translates to "children". You can have children which aren't necessarily babies. "Baby"=bebé.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mitaine56

marzutka, my hijo is 45 years old, he isn't a baby since a long time.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/nineveh22

Shouldn't it be appropriate to say "No, no tenemos unos bebés?" That is what I did but it said it was wrong... what about the article makes it wrong?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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It's because that would be translated as "No, we don't have some babies", the "some" is not necessary, and it is not part of the original sentence.

Also, this is just what I think, but if you say "No, no tenemos unos bebés" you're not necessarily denying that you have babies, you're just denying that you have some/few babies, you could have many children. While "No, no tenemos bebés" is flat out rejecting that you have babies altogether.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/whataboutthis

Why is bambinos incorrect?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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I believe "bambino" is Italian, not Spanish. "Baby"=bebé

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/A.O.Garith

I just went through a different lesson where I learned "¿Qué hace tu tía?" So although I wanted to write "no tenemos bebés", I wrote "bebés no tenemos". I think I can just barely see the difference and reasoning... Could someone explain it, please?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/neiht20
neiht20
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The reason why the "tu tía" came after the verb in your other example is because the verb and subject are sometimes flipped in questions, but they can be left alone in statements. The other thing is that "bebés" is not the subject in this case, it is the object. If you were wanting to put the subject after the verb you would say "no tenemos nosotros", although I'm not sure if that sounds natural or not.

3 years ago