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  5. "Kvinden og manden har en tal…

"Kvinden og manden har en tallerken."

Translation:The woman and the man have a plate.

October 5, 2014



My silly self thought it would be "child" or "meal," forgetting Duo's amusing aversion to sentences someone might say.


Seems like I'm asking questions all over the Danish section this morning. So, in this text "har" is have. In English "The woman and the man have a plate" It honestly seems like that would be grammatically correct in my view. But, in Danish it's "have", correct? I'm having a hard time trying to wrap my brain around this grammar logic here lol.

Thanks in advance for any help. :)


What are you asking?


Uh..I seem to have wrote it, but I guess it didn't show up.. I'll write it again.. In the text "har" can it be written as "has" and also "have" because in English "The woman and the man have a plate" Where I live that would be correct as well as "The woman and the man has a plate" So, I'm just wondering if "har" in Danish would only mean "has" and that's it. I searched online for many Danish resources and couldn't find any sort of Danish grammar that resembled this sort. Is their some sort of grammar rule that's involved here?


Ah, well it seems there isn't really a "has" in Danish. Where there would be has, have takes its place. So yes, it seems has/ have = Har. No grammar necessary. Hope it helps. :)


Ok thanks.I really do appreciate your reply.


Du er Velkommen :D


Thanks for working on this behind the scenes! Aren't "plate" and "dish" interchageable translations in this context? "Dish" has an addtl. meaning of "composed meal," but people eat off of plates and dishes, so I think an alternate translation should be offered for this sentence.


Maybe 'dishes' only exists in plural and is also rather used to describe several different types of plates (eg for soup) and not just that one plate?! not sure though English is not my main language.


"The woman and man have a plate" is regarded as incorrect as it's supposed to be: "The woman and THE man have a plate". I think both forms in English should be regarded as correct unless someone can explain why not?


It's because it specifically uses the word 'manden' that they expect you to translate with 'the man'. Grammatically it may be accepted in English but they are testing your knowledge of the words shown, not your English grammar.


Hi Dzialak, There is a rule of concord. When two singular subjects are connected by "and" the verb is plural.


I am confused why this is en tallerken, doesnt the en on the end mean "the"?


Actually, that's just the word they have for plate. The definitive for tallerken is tallerkenen. So you would still add 'en' to the end of the word to make it 'the plate'


For a second I thought this was "the woman and the man have a potato"


Has is not a wrong thing to say...


In English, with this sentence, it would be wrong to use "has" instead of "have." In English, he or she "has", but he AND she form "they" which requires "have."

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