why is it not "thuis" instead of "huis" ?
Because thuis only works for a place you are in, so you only use it when there is no movement involved whatsoever.
Here the verb komen implies moving from another place to get to that guy's home. So you must use naar and cant use thuis.
If it would've been to some random house you'd just add "een" before "huis"? This way we know the translation should be "home"?
I think in most (maybe all?) cases, "naar huis" can be translated as "home". Indeed if you wanted to say "(somebody's) house" you should use an extra word in between (possessive or article): naar mijn huis / haar huis / het huis / een huis, etc.
Can this sentence just be "Ik beveel je naar huis te komen" like the German construction would most often be? "Ich befehl dich nach Hause zu kommen."
That's fine as well, om is optional.
Thanks for all your help, Susande.
Pretty late, maybe outdated, but in german it would be "Ich befehle dir nach Hause zu kommen"
is het niet "I order for you to come home" in het engels?
je moet niet "for" gebruiken . "I order you to come home" is correct!
In English, "I demand that you come home" would also seem to be a perfectly accurate translation.
Is it correct to assume that if 'huis' is used without an article it should generally be translated as 'home'?
Ok so would om..te be equivalent to um..zu in German?
Should this English translation be accepted? "I order you to come to house"
That sentence wouldn't be used in English. If using the word "house" it would be "I order you to come to the house"
Duolingo marks this incorrect, however
No good. I would use "I order you to come home" most, maybe "I order you to come to the house" as well. Both are equally correct, grammatically.
So "te+infinitive" will always be at the end no matter what.. right?
Does anyone have a clear explanation regarding whether or not om is used and where it is placed in sentences using te + infinitive?