There is a problem in one of my text books that goes. 4. Por favor, te encargas tu de atender las llamadas que ___ maniana. The answer is: haya. I don't get this at all. Why is it haya? why not habra!? and if it's llamadas why not hayan or habran!?
I'm not really sure of this myself, so bear with me. I'm still get confused with the conditional and subjunctive in Spanish.
Haya is subjunctive, a tense that has all but disappeared in English. "If I were rich..." is a good example of it in English. Most people would say "If I was rich", but the subjunctive is/should be used for something that is "contrafactual"--not true but suggested as a possibility. So "haya" is used here for the possibility that there might be calls, not the fact that there will be calls.
As for haya vs. hayan, "las llamadas" is not the subject of the clause but rather the object of it. Haber used in this manner is always singular. I think it's more or less "The universe has X" rather than "X exists", with "the universe" implied rather than included. No matter how many things the universe has, it's always only one universe, so haber remains singular.
Thanks that helped a lot! I know get the subjuntive part! I am still not a hundred percent sure on the plural/singular part but I think if I think it over it will make sense! Thanks!
hay = there is, there are.
Por favor, te encargas tu de atender las llamadas que haya mañana
Honestly, I don't get it. I haven't seen haya used like that before, it is there in SpanishDict's definition for haber. I can't successfully translate the sentence in my head but hopefully this helps.
Las llamadas = the calls
que haya mañana = there tomorrow?
It translates to more or less I think: Please take care of the calls that will be there tomorrow. I get the meaning, sure. But not why it's haya. and why habra can't be used and why it's singular not habran or hayan despite it being the calls plural