"The men are drinking milk."

Translation: Mændene drikker mælk.

[Bennato]

Why mændene and not mænden?

[Idraote]

because plural definite is either -ene or -erne. There are no exceptions that I know of, even when the noun is highly irregular

[Ivoryviking]

Why does mand turn to mændene when going from "man" to "the men"? Wouldn't it be Mandene? I'm a bit confused :S

[Xneb]

Mand goes to mænd in the plural (pretty much the same way "man" goes to "men" in English with very similar pronunciation). Manden means "the man" and so "mændene" means "the men"

[Ivoryviking]

Ah, thank you. I'm really new to Danish, so I'm trying to learn as much as I can. lol