"El hombre bebe agua."

Isolated it is beve but since it is in the middle of a sentence it is pronounced as veve (exception if the word of the previous sentence ends in n like un bebé)

martin- In Spanish, the sound V doesn' really exists, it's pronounced half-way between B and V.

I thought it was b but i asked www.brainly.com

http://forvo.com/word/bebe/#es

b

No, the "h" is silent in Spanish, except for "ch" which is pronounced like the "ch" in "church."

With the accent it means baby without it means drink. The accent determines how its prenounced (where you place emphasis) hope that helps !

atonya- bebe = he/she drinks. bebé = baby

bebé is baby 0.0

Haha three months later I figured it out

?

I drink-----yo bebo You drink (informal)-----tú bebes You drink (formal), it/she/he drinks-----él/ella/usted bebe We drink-------nosotros bebemos They drink--------ustedes beben

Does that answer it?

because they asked for "the man drinks water". Hombre=man . For he drinks water it would be El (accent mark over E) bebe agua = He drinks water

mhavay- With he, you don't know if it's a boy or a man. Also, you translate a noun with a noun, not a pronoun.

oi-vey- él = he, and el = the

brittany- No because bebe is he/she drinks, bebe is present not past. bebes isn't drinks, it's drink, you drink.

I am not sure, except that maybe because the word 'the' describing water wasn't there, they marked it wrong.

Yes, and it is bebió

Maybe. Sometimes it says it is wrong, sometimes it doesn't

I like to drink water = Me gusta beber agua. "Me gusta" is a structure you probably haven't had yet. It's a verb that works differently than yo bebo, yo como, etc.

No. If you are trying to say I like to drink water, it's 'me gusta beber agua' or 'a mí me gusta beber agua'. You said 'I like myself, it (or he or she) drinks water'. Haha