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  5. "Usted hablaba más que yo."

"Usted hablaba más que yo."

Translation:You used to talk more than I.

June 20, 2013


  • 171

The translation "You used to talk more than me." is not grammatically correct, I think. You and I are the subjects of the sentence. The only correct translation should therefore be "You used to talk more than I."


"You used to talk more than me" is my first inclination, and it's colloquially relevant. My sense is that you need the word "do" or "did" or "would" etc. if you use an "I".

But it looks like it's an ongoing controversy: http://grammar.quickanddirtytips.com/than-I-versus-than-me.aspx


I put "more than I did" and was marked wrong. But that's how I speak (native English) because I consider "I" to be a subject in such sentences.


You are correct "I" is the subject even without adding "did"... You finished the eliptical sentence by writing the "did". DL penalized you because you expressed something that the sentence conveys but which exists in our head. More precisely the thought conveyed is " You used to talk more than I talked"....or "you used to talk more than I did." Please read my several comments below.

  • 171

The question isn't whether you have any of the words you list in the sentence, but what the subject in the sentence is. Just because many (native) speakers make this mistake, does not mean that I should be forced to make this mistake as well. If DL decides to accept this it should not mark a response as false where that translation is not selected.


The issue is that if enough native speakers make a "mistake" in a natural language, it isn't one. We didn't get English on golden tablets from a god on some mountain. Its "rules" are observed trends among speakers and little more.

At the very least it should also accept "...I" though.



Language evolves.


Some things might be accepted, but just because native speakers make mistakes, that doesn't mean the mistake should be made correct. I hear people say "I seen" all the time, just to name one of the worst offensives. More people than not confuse your and you're. Simple English. Their errors shouldn't mean we should deem such atrocities correct.


I'm on your team. I am not a native Spanish speaker but I notice mistakes all the time and I down vote the sentence in hopes it will get noticed and of course report it when I can.


professorleah, Yes it has been debated for centuries, or so I heard. Sorry, I didn't read your reference because last time I clicked on a link, I got kicked out of the lesson.


No, "than" is a clause determiner; therefore, "I" is used because the "did" is understood.


I think "You used to talk more than I did" will work fine if you want to use 2 subjects. But other than that "You used to talk more than me" is perfectly right, because it answers the question, "More than whom?", and not "More than who?". This is how I've understood it. Correct me if I'm wrong.


I vs. me debate aside (a good text on it can be found here: http://www.quickanddirtytips.com/education/grammar/than-i-versus-than-me ), "Usted" is the only really expressed subject of this sentence, as you can see from "hablaba". Perceived continuation "more than I talked" would be another clause, with "I" , but not "you", as its subject.


I totally agree. Why translate the Spanish improperly?


mszs, This came up in an earlier lesson. As someone who knows you are right!, I turned to the comments --- This is the "Duo way!"--- So, this time I used "me," and turned to this page :(


26 comments on English grammar. I'm here to learn Spanish. ¿Y tú?


"You used to talk more than I did" is now accepted, and I agree it is better English.


At this level, it is shameful to confuse "más" with "muy"! And I keep doing it. <sub>_</sub>


I don't know if this will help, but sometimes little things stick in your mind.

más = good/plus

muy = very

Muy and very both end in "y". When you get confused, just remember that the two words that end in "y" go together until it sticks in your head.

I hope this helps :)


'You used to tall more than me' would be more representative of common speech. Duolingo can choose to take a descriptive stance instead of à prescriptive one.


mars, ¡Estoy de acuerdo! –––Kenecxjo Ricardo


I put better "you were speaking more than I" because it was at that moment but in past (Pasado imperfecto) and it was correct, it's better.


Putting a period at the end of the last word tile was a mistake, it allows people to foresee the answer.


You used to talk more than I.


Kimberleig, Of course, you're right! Let me mention that DL uses "street" (colloquial) "American" English... I ordinarily use "me" lest I be thought a snob! [In even somewhat educated situations ..."I," in writing always "I."]


I had you talk more than me. DL saod it should be you spoke more than me.??


Charlie, "Usted habla más que yo." would work for your translation. ...... Why not do what I just did? Go to (the freely downloadable), Spanishdict, and enter "Usted hablaba." The entire DL sentence will pop up !! Then click on "more translations"! And there it is :) [Of course, you can simply google: Spanish Dict]


Mom!!! He was talking more than me!!! HE should be in trouble, not me. He started it!!!!


I had this correct and they returned an error


JerdeenJer, After you see "wrong" ... click, and report it ! :)


You spoke more than I = not accepted. How come?


fandjango, You, of course, are correct ! ... Duolingo likes to use colloquial "American" English : You spoke more than me ...!


Why is "You used to talk more to me," Incorrect?


Because "más que" is a comparative adjective phrase = "more than," "greater than" or "plenty." Alternatively, "menos que" = less than...


That's why I opened this up as well Thomas... not to get lectures on I versus me. I'll be happy if I get the general gist of a conversation with a native speaker! I wonder how one would say "You used to speak more to me" in that case.


You were talking more to me. why is is this wrong thanks your help


I is correct. me is colloqual and perhaps should be accepted. I read a lot of US crime novels etc and I find that Americans are more grammatical than natives. I is not the object of the verb to be. When I was at school a long time ago I was taught that the verb "to be" takes a complement, not an object. which means that the "do" is understood".


cris, ¡Verdad! ... y ... ¡Verdad! –––ּ ¡Bravo!


You have spoken more than me is wrong?


Chris, hablaba = ("simple past tense") spoke / were speaking

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