"She is not getting that."
Translation:Níl sí á fháil sin.
"níl sí é sin a fháil" - why is this wrong? or even " níl sí chun é sin a fháil"
A few steps are involved:
- When a pronoun is the object of a progressive verbal noun, the pronoun changes to a possessive pronoun, and ag changes to do; thus, ag fáil é becomes do a fháil.
- When the possessive pronoun is a, do a becomes á (and do ár becomes dár ); thus do a fháil becomes á fháil.
- The same happens when it’s a demonstrative pronoun; the demonstrative part (either seo, sin, or siúd ) follows the verbal noun, so ag fáil é sin becomes á fháil sin.
Would "...á fáil sin" also be possible if "that" (or "sin") was known to refer to a feminine object?
Do verbal nouns not get negated with "Ni" as do verbs other than bi. I'm struggling with two areas within duolingo- verbal nouns and Ni vs. Nil. The other area, which no study will solve: 70 year old american ears
níl sí á fháil sin is the negative form of tá sí á fháil sin.
The negation is applied to the verb bí in Irish (níl), just as it is applied to the verb "be" in English ("isn't").
Níl is just a contraction of "ní fhuil". If you can remember that the interrogative form of tá is an bhfuil, then it should be possible to recognize that níl is just the negative form of tá and is never used in any other context, and is always used when you are negating a tá statement.
Ir might also help to remember that ní is always followed by a verb. níl is a contraction of ní and fhuil so it already includes a verb, and it is never followed by another verb.