The translation is a bit off. It's a set phrase in Spanish that appears to mean "I haven't heard anything from you in a while", i.e. when you haven't seen someone or kept in contact with them for some time. http://forum.wordreference.com/showthread.php?t=2398736
In that case, I think they at least need to change the main, suggest translation for it. Sometimes I think there needs to be a separate skill for expressions that aren't really idioms, but still lose their meaning when directly translated.
The response "I have known nothing of you" is technically correct, albeit somewhat unnatural, and is marked wrong.
"I have known nothing of you" is definitely incorrect. It is more than just unnatural, it is not an expression that would be used in common english at all, so how can it be referred to as "technically correct"?
I agree. "I didn't know anything about you" is one thing (the present perfect won't fit in here) and "I haven't heard anything from you" is another. "I have known nothing of you" simply doesn't make sense, because if you talk to a stranger, you will say "I don't know you at all" or "I didn't know anything about you (but I do now)"
If we swap out the participle 'known' and put in 'seen', 'heard', or 'spoken' for example, it sounds (IMO) to sound like something that would be said in super formal settings or in literature. I guess it is very formal and spoken passively, that make it sound strange.
I think you're quibbling, Angel_G, over the use of "technically" when all vedant means is that "I have known nothing of you" is a literal/word-for-word translation. That being said, this seems to be idiomatic Spanish, at least from this American English speaker's point of view.
It's been commented upon already, but just to emphasise, this is by far the most awkward English sentence I've seen on Duolingo. To the extent that, to be honest, I didn't even understand it.
You only put accents on the prepositions that can be confused with another part of speech. mí,with an accent means 'me,' without it it means 'my'. él with an accent means 'he, him'; without it means 'the'
You mean like it does in the preterit tense? I have that question too. I answered, "I have not found out anything about you" and this was marked wrong.
Because the construction "he sabido" is supposed to be present perfect. In this case, it should be "I have not known". "I do not know" would be simple present.
'about you' is correct English and you left off 'have' which is required here.
"Of you" is not incorrect English. However, it is less used in New Jersey.
"I have not known anything about you" seems to be the correct translation. Very difficult this one.
Perhaps, the Spanish sentence means "I didn't know anything about you until now.", implying "Now that I met you, I at least know who you are". Otherwise, the present simple should be used in English: "I don't know anything about you". Combining the present perfect of 'know' with 'you' as an object just doesn't make sense (although it may look quite natural to a native speaker of Spanish). I think, Duolingo should remove this strange sentence from its exercises to avoid confusion.
I think you're right about the meaning. But I disagree with the idea of removing the sentence from Duolingo exercises. Challenges are good for us and help us learn, even if we don't get it "right." I am still wondering, though, if another interpretation of this sentence couldn't be "I have not learned anything about you."
See how you would say the same sentence, with "he" or "him" or "his".
If you would say "he", then use "tú".
If you would say "his", use "tu".
If you would say "him", use "ti".
"I have not known anything about him". So it's "ti".
Edit: I made a mistake in the "his" case. There should be no accent on the "tu" for "your".
BarbaraMorris I want to clarify that your explanation of the difference between Tú, Tu, and Ti metaphorically uses he, his, and him. I'm assuming that you're doing this because in English Tú and Ti both translate as You, and you wanted to demonstrate the difference between the subject pronoun and the prepositional pronoun. However, for clarity, I wanted to add the literal translations.
Subject pronoun:––––––––Tú = You
Possessive Adjectives:––Tu, Tus = your
Prepositional pronoun:–––––Ti = You
This is another one of those sentences that just doesn't translate easily into natural everyday English.
I agree this one is a stretch and "known" as well as "heard from" should both be accepted, since the speaker could mean either, depending upon the context.
where do you get known nothing? I took a shot st "i do not know none of you". Seems thats how it reads, although strange, it wouldnt be the first for DL.
"he sabido" means" "I have known".
"No he sabido nada" means "I have not known anything" or "I have known nothing".
"de ti" means "about you".
"I do not know none of you" is not valid English. English doesn't use a double negative, so it would be either "I do not know any of you" or "I know none of you". But I don't think "nada de ti" means "none of you"; that would be something like "No conozco a ninguno de ustedes".
Why can't i say "i have not known nothing about you" Duolingo wants me to use the word ''anything'' instead of ''nothing'' But for me there is no difference at all
In English, double negatives effectively cancel each other out. "I have not known nothing about you" means " I have known something about you". The usual advice is to avoid them, as they are hard to understand, but you'll hear phrases such as "It's not that I don't like you" to mean that they do, in fact like the person.
"no i have never known of you" =what i put, yet wrong to DL. Thoughts? Corrections?
The "no" in the Spanish sentence isn't a separate "No" starting off the sentence. It goes with "nada". It's not valid to day "He sabido nada" - the initial "no" is needed when "nada" is the object of the verb. In Spanish, double negatives are normal; they don't negate each other the way they do in English.
Also, "nada" means "nothing", not "never". So "No he sabido nada" means "I have known nothing"
I wrote I have not heard from you for a while, thinking this was an idiom but DL marked it wrong and gave me the literal translation as correct. What is correct?!
It always puzzles me why there are two negatives (no and nada) to express a negative expression.
You'd be surprised to learn that languages for which using a double negative is normal outnumber those for which it isn't.
The only time you could ever consider saying phase is at the exact moment a complete stranger is no longer a stranger to you . "I have not known anything about you...until now!"
Or alternatively meeting a long, lost relative you never knew existed. ;p
There are two things going on here.
One, this is a common phrase in Spanish that doesn't really mean what we think it means from a direct translation. Once you know the colloquial meaning, it makes more sense and is a useful phrase to know.
Two, this contains a number of structural elements that Duo is drilling and will carry over to situations where the same kind of sentence is used, even if we change a lot of the words. For example, change saber to recibir and you have a completely different meaning, but one that is likely more commonly used.
It's good not to focus on the actual sentence and try to pick up the broader applicability of understanding the sentence. Duo never meant to teach us the most useful sentences and phrases. There are 1000s of guides for that purpose already.
I made some comment about this, per Duo somewhere, but anyway Duo's translation looks perfectly correct and an example of present perfect. Maybe my Spanish is getting a little better?
Based upon the verbs used, this is about knowing not hearing. So, it's a rather different kind of statement.
"I did not know" uses the simple past (supe or sabía) rather than the present perfect (he sabido).
The Spanish Present Perfect matches perfectly the French Passé Composé which is commonly used in the spoken language as a replacement of Passé Simple (the simple past) and often corresponds to the English Past Simple. Is Spanish similar to French in its use of tenses?
Good question. I don't know French, but suspect you may be right. It especially makes sense in the context of speaking, since people often break the "rules" when speaking.
I know that Spanish usage differs from English when it comes to verbs. We see a lot of confusion in Duo for this reason, because they sometimes accept translations that do not match tense-for-tense. I've not encountered that with any of the "perfect" aspects, but would like to know if what you say of French operates the same in Spanish.
It's not as simple as just being used for people who are familiar with. It might also be used for people in the same age group or same rank at work. Here's a useful discussion. https://www.fluentu.com/blog/spanish/tu-and-usted/
I dont understand this verb form at all. How is this one "known" but the one about teacher was "been"
Are you thinking of "sido"? That's the past participle of the verb "ser," and "to have been" is "haber sido." This sentence is using "saber."
Ohhhh, that could be it. Granted I am really tired and just got out of a full day of classes so I'm a little out of it haha. Thank you so much! That makes sense.